ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2026-2027
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES (100% RELIABLE
ANSWERS) ATI CAPSTONE PRE-ASSESSMENT
EXAM EDITION 2026 RECENTLY UPDATED
EXAM |ALREADY GRADED A+ |INSTANT
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A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking prednisone for 2 weeks. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Blood glucose 180 mg/dL
B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb)
C. Blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg
D. Client report of a sore throat and fever
Answer: D
Rationale: A sore throat and fever in a client taking prednisone, a corticosteroid,
can indicate a serious infection. Corticosteroids suppress the immune system,
masking signs of infection. This finding must be reported immediately. While
hyperglycemia, weight gain, and hypertension are common adverse effects of
,prednisone, they are not immediate, life-threatening complications like a potential
infection.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the
following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A. Urticaria and itching
B. Fever and chills
C. Low back pain and dark urine
D. Crackles in the lung bases
Answer: C
Rationale: Low back pain and dark urine (hemoglobinuria) are classic signs of an
acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, caused by the destruction of red blood cells.
Urticaria and itching indicate a mild allergic reaction. Fever and chills can indicate
a febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Crackles in the lung bases indicate circulatory
overload.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin.
Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's platelet count for signs of heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious adverse effect of enoxaparin. While
aPTT is monitored for unfractionated heparin, enoxaparin (a low molecular weight
heparin) typically does not require routine monitoring of aPTT. PT and INR are
used to monitor warfarin therapy.
,A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus
about sick-day management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. "Check your blood glucose every 8 hours."
B. "If you are unable to eat, take your usual dose of insulin."
C. "Withhold your insulin if your blood glucose is less than 200 mg/dL."
D. "Drink 8 to 12 ounces of sugar-free liquids every hour."
Answer: B
Rationale: The client should continue to take their usual dose of insulin, even if
they are unable to eat, because illness increases the body's demand for insulin due
to stress hormones. Blood glucose should be checked every 3 to 4 hours. Insulin
should never be withheld during illness. The client should drink 8 to 12 ounces of
calorie-containing liquids every hour if unable to eat solid food.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent
dislocation of the hip prosthesis?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
B. Keep the client's hip flexed at a 120° angle.
C. Encourage the client to cross their legs when sitting.
D. Position the client on the operative side for the first 24 hours.
Answer: A
Rationale: Placing a pillow (or abduction splint) between the legs maintains
abduction and prevents adduction, which is the primary mechanism for hip
dislocation after a posterior approach arthroplasty. The hip should not be flexed
beyond 90°. Crossing the legs is also contraindicated as it promotes adduction.
Positioning on the operative side is often avoided initially.
, A nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving
magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse
to report?
A. Respiratory rate 10/min
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D. Blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg
Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min is below the expected reference range of 12
to 20/min and indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity. This is the priority finding
because it can lead to respiratory arrest. Urine output of 40 mL/hr is adequate.
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal. A blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg is
elevated but not the priority over a sign of magnesium toxicity.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which
of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to
administering the medication?
A. Heart rate 58/min
B. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
D. Digoxin level 1.8 ng/mL
Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate below 60/min in an adult is a contraindication for
administering digoxin. The nurse should withhold the dose and notify the provider.
Hypokalemia (potassium 3.2 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity but is
not an absolute contraindication. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within