SMQT CERTIFICATION EXAM PREP -
ADVANCED LEVEL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
1. Which federal act established the quality standards for nursing homes and the current
survey process?
A. The Social Security Act of 1935
B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA ’87)
D. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: OBRA ’87, also known as the Nursing Home Reform Act,
mandated specific quality standards and a survey process to ensure long-term care
facilities meet federal requirements.
2. In the Scope and Severity Grid, a deficiency categorized as ‘L’ represents:
A. Isolated actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy
B. Widespread immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety
C. Pattern of potential for minimal harm
D. Widespread actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy
,Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Severity Level 4 (Immediate Jeopardy) combined with a Scope of
‘Widespread’ results in a category L deficiency.
3. During Task 1 of the Standard Survey, which of the following is the primary focus?
A. Conducting the Entrance Conference
B. Initial Tour of the facility
C. Off-site Survey Preparation and data review
D. Resident Sample Selection
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Task 1 involves the team reviewing facility history, CASPER
reports, and other data before arriving on-site.
4. What is the maximum timeframe for a facility to submit a Plan of Correction (POC) after
receiving the Statement of Deficiencies (Form CMS-2567)?
A. 5 calendar days
B. 10 calendar days
C. 15 working days
D. 30 calendar days
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Facilities generally have 10 calendar days to submit a written
Plan of Correction following receipt of the CMS-2567.
5. Which severity level is defined as ‘a deficiency that results in a negative outcome that has
compromised the resident’s ability to maintain or reach his or her highest practicable
physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being’?
A. Level 3
B. Level 2
C. Level 1
D. Level 4
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Level 3 indicates ‘Actual Harm’ that is not immediate jeopardy.
6. When a surveyor identifies that a resident was not provided with adequate supervision
resulting in a fall with a fracture, which ‘F-tag’ is most likely to be cited?
A. F600 (Free from Abuse)
B. F689 (Free from Accident Hazards/Supervision)
C. F880 (Infection Control)
D. F550 (Resident Rights)
Answer: B
ADVANCED LEVEL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
1. Which federal act established the quality standards for nursing homes and the current
survey process?
A. The Social Security Act of 1935
B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA ’87)
D. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: OBRA ’87, also known as the Nursing Home Reform Act,
mandated specific quality standards and a survey process to ensure long-term care
facilities meet federal requirements.
2. In the Scope and Severity Grid, a deficiency categorized as ‘L’ represents:
A. Isolated actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy
B. Widespread immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety
C. Pattern of potential for minimal harm
D. Widespread actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy
,Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Severity Level 4 (Immediate Jeopardy) combined with a Scope of
‘Widespread’ results in a category L deficiency.
3. During Task 1 of the Standard Survey, which of the following is the primary focus?
A. Conducting the Entrance Conference
B. Initial Tour of the facility
C. Off-site Survey Preparation and data review
D. Resident Sample Selection
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Task 1 involves the team reviewing facility history, CASPER
reports, and other data before arriving on-site.
4. What is the maximum timeframe for a facility to submit a Plan of Correction (POC) after
receiving the Statement of Deficiencies (Form CMS-2567)?
A. 5 calendar days
B. 10 calendar days
C. 15 working days
D. 30 calendar days
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Facilities generally have 10 calendar days to submit a written
Plan of Correction following receipt of the CMS-2567.
5. Which severity level is defined as ‘a deficiency that results in a negative outcome that has
compromised the resident’s ability to maintain or reach his or her highest practicable
physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being’?
A. Level 3
B. Level 2
C. Level 1
D. Level 4
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Level 3 indicates ‘Actual Harm’ that is not immediate jeopardy.
6. When a surveyor identifies that a resident was not provided with adequate supervision
resulting in a fall with a fracture, which ‘F-tag’ is most likely to be cited?
A. F600 (Free from Abuse)
B. F689 (Free from Accident Hazards/Supervision)
C. F880 (Infection Control)
D. F550 (Resident Rights)
Answer: B
