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Exam (elaborations)

ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored Exam –Verified Q&A with Explanations | Level 3 Practice Chamberlain University

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ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored Exam –Verified Q&A with Explanations | Level 3 Practice Chamberlain University

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ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored Exam –Verified Q&A with
Explanations | Level 3 Practice Chamberlain University

This ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored Exam resource includes multiple-choice practice
questions with verified updated answers and detailed explanations. Each question is organized
for efficient review and covers core nursing fundamentals, safety, infection control, medication
administration, and client care. It is ideal for nursing students preparing for the ATI RN
Fundamentals proctored exam, course exams, and NCLEX fundamentals review.




1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A) Open the sterile catheter kit
B) Position the client in the dorsal recumbent position
C) Perform hand hygiene
D) Apply sterile gloves

Answer: C) Perform hand hygiene.

Explanation: Hand hygiene is the first and most important action before any sterile
procedure to prevent infection. All other steps follow after hand hygiene is
performed.




2. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. After opening sterile supplies,
the nurse drops a sterile gauze pad on the floor 2 inches from the field. What
action should the nurse take?
A) Pick up the gauze and continue using it
B) Discard the gauze and obtain a new one
C) Wipe the gauze with alcohol and use it
D) Use the gauze only for the outer dressing

Answer: B) Discard the gauze and obtain a new one.

,Explanation: Any sterile item that touches a non-sterile surface (including the
floor) is contaminated and must be discarded. Sterile technique requires that all
items remain within the sterile field.




3. A nurse is caring for a client with a Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection.
Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
A) Standard precautions
B) Contact precautions
C) Droplet precautions
D) Airborne precautions

Answer: B) Contact precautions.

Explanation: C. diff requires contact precautions because it is transmitted via direct
or indirect contact with contaminated surfaces. Standard precautions apply to all
clients, but transmission-based precautions like contact are added for specific
infections.




4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about fire safety in the home. Which of
the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?
A) "I will keep a fire extinguisher in the kitchen."
B) "I will smoke in bed if I am careful."
C) "I will use a space heater near flammable materials."
D) "I will leave candles burning overnight."

Answer: A) "I will keep a fire extinguisher in the kitchen."

Explanation: Fire extinguishers should be kept in the kitchen and other high-risk
areas. Smoking in bed, using space heaters near flammable materials, and leaving
candles burning are fire hazards.

,5. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which of the following is the
correct duration for handwashing with soap and water?
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 60 seconds

Answer: C) 20 seconds.

Explanation: Handwashing with soap and water should last at least 20 seconds
(approximately the time it takes to sing "Happy Birthday" twice).




6. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an
abdominal hysterectomy. The client's urine output has been 20 mL over the past 2
hours. The client's blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg, heart rate is 118/min, and
respiratory rate is 22/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
A) Increase the IV fluid rate
B) Notify the provider
C) Assess the client's surgical incision
D) Check the client's intake and output records

Answer: B) Notify the provider.

Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock (oliguria,
hypotension, tachycardia). The nurse should notify the provider immediately
because these findings indicate a potential complication such as hemorrhage or
fluid volume deficit. While increasing fluids, assessing the incision, and checking
I&O are appropriate, they are not the priority action—the provider must be
notified first to obtain orders for further intervention.




7. A nurse is preparing to administer 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse
over 4 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute should
the nurse set the manual IV infusion? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
A) 21 gtt/min

, B) 25 gtt/min
C) 31 gtt/min
D) 42 gtt/min

Answer: C) 31 gtt/min.

Explanation: Calculation: (Volume × Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes = (500 × 15)
÷ 240 = 7,500 ÷ 240 = 31.25 ≈ 31 gtt/min.




8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription
for home oxygen therapy. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will post 'No Smoking' signs in my home."
B) "I can use petroleum jelly to lubricate my nares."
C) "I should keep the oxygen tank upright and secured."
D) "I will avoid using wool blankets while my oxygen is on."

Answer: B) "I can use petroleum jelly to lubricate my nares."

Explanation: Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen
therapy due to the risk of fire. Water-based lubricants should be used instead. The
other statements are correct safety measures.




9. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative and has a surgical
wound that is red, warm to the touch, and has purulent drainage. The client's
temperature is 38.3°C (101°F). Which of the following actions should the nurse
take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Notify the provider
B) Obtain a wound culture
C) Apply a sterile dressing
D) Administer an antipyretic as prescribed
E) Place the client on contact precautions

Answer: A, B, C, D, E.

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