QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS [GRADED A+]
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because
of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the
nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - ✔✔C) Purulent sputum.
Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an
indication of infection, so this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids
may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain normal, borderline,
or increase while taking oral steroids.
©morren2026/2027.Year published 2026.
,The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which
assessment finding indicates the client may have developed septic emboli?
A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea.
C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds.
D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. - ✔✔A) Cyanosis of the
fingertips.
Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small
arterioles of the extremities, causing a decrease in circulation to the hands
(A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings, but
do not indicate the development of septic emboli.
A 46-year-old female client is admitted for acute renal failure secondary to
diabetes and hypertension. Which test is the best indicator of adequate
glomerular filtration?
A) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
C) Sedimentation rate.
©morren2026/2027.Year published 2026.
, D) Urine specific gravity. - ✔✔A) Serum creatinine.
(B) is also an indicator of renal activity, but it can be affected by non-renal
factors such as hypovolemia and increased protein intake. (C) is a
nonspecific test for acute or chronic inflammatory processes. (D) is useful
in assessing hydration status, but not as useful in assessing glomerular
function.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has
developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the
bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which
medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - ✔✔A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased
heart rate and decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor
©morren2026/2027.Year published 2026.