PATHO 370 Midterm Study Guide 2026–2027 |
Pathophysiology 370 Midterm Exam Review & Nursing
Practice Questions | PATHO 370 Study Guide with
Answers & Detailed Rationales | Pathophysiology
Concepts, Cellular Injury, Inflammation, Immune
Response, Infection, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance, Acid-
Base Disorders, Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Renal,
Endocrine, Neurological, Gastrointestinal & Hematologic
Disease Processes, Signs & Symptoms, Risk Factors,
Diagnostics, Complications, Clinical Manifestations &
Nursing Implications
Question 1: A patient is diagnosed with tertiary prevention after experiencing
a myocardial infarction. Which intervention exemplifies this level of
prevention?
A. Immunization against influenza
B. Cardiac rehabilitation and cholesterol-lowering medication
C. Screening for hypertension
D. Annual physical examination
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cardiac rehabilitation and cholesterol-lowering
medication
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing disability and preventing further
complications after a disease has been diagnosed. Cardiac rehabilitation and medication
therapy aim to prevent recurrent cardiovascular events and improve quality of life
following a myocardial infarction.
Question 2: A disease that is consistently present within a specific geographic
region is best described as:
A. Epidemic
B. Pandemic
C. Endemic
D. Sporadic
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Endemic
Rationale: An endemic disease is one that is native to or consistently present within a
particular region or population. This differs from epidemic (rapid spread in a population)
and pandemic (global spread).
Question 3: The time between exposure to a pathogenic agent and the first
appearance of clinical signs and symptoms is known as the:
A. Prodromal period
B. Latent period
C. Convalescence period
D. Acute phase
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. Latent period
Rationale: The latent period represents the interval between exposure to an injurious
agent and the first appearance of signs or symptoms. The prodromal period follows the
latent period and is characterized by the onset of nonspecific symptoms.
Question 4: An increase in organ size resulting from an increased workload,
such as myocardial hypertrophy in hypertension, is termed:
A. Atrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Metaplasia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size that leads to an increase in
organ size. This is distinct from hyperplasia, which involves an increase in cell number.
Myocardial hypertrophy in response to hypertension is a classic example of hypertrophy.
Question 5: Which cellular response is considered a precursor to neoplastic
transformation?
A. Atrophy
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Hypertrophy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered cellular growth and is considered a
preneoplastic change. It often precedes the development of malignancy, particularly in
epithelial tissues. Atrophy, metaplasia, and hypertrophy are adaptive responses that are
not inherently preneoplastic.
Question 6: A patient experiencing a panic attack with hyperventilation is at
risk for which acid-base disturbance?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes excessive elimination of carbon dioxide, leading to a
decrease in arterial PCO2 and a resultant respiratory alkalosis. This is frequently
observed in panic attacks and anxiety disorders.
Question 7: Diarrhea resulting in significant bicarbonate loss would most likely
produce which acid-base imbalance?
,A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Metabolic acidosis
Rationale: Diarrhea causes loss of bicarbonate-rich intestinal fluids. Bicarbonate is a
base, so its loss leads to a relative excess of acid and results in metabolic acidosis.
Question 8: A patient in cardiogenic shock would be expected to demonstrate
which hemodynamic alteration?
A. Reduced cardiac output
B. Hypovolemia
C. Reduced systemic vascular resistance
D. Elevated mixed venous oxygen saturation
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Reduced cardiac output
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from severe ventricular dysfunction leading to
inadequate cardiac pumping. The hallmark is reduced cardiac output despite adequate
intravascular volume. Systemic vascular resistance is typically elevated due to
compensatory vasoconstriction.
Question 9: The common pathophysiological denominator in all forms of heart
failure is:
A. Poor diastolic filling
B. Reduced cardiac output
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Tissue ischemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Reduced cardiac output
Rationale: Regardless of the underlying cause, the common manifestation of heart
failure is the inability of the heart to pump blood adequately to meet metabolic
demands, resulting in reduced cardiac output. Clinical presentations vary depending on
which ventricle is affected.
Question 10: Pulse pressure is calculated by which formula?
A. Systolic pressure + diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure ÷ diastolic pressure
C. Systolic pressure − diastolic pressure
D. Systolic pressure × systemic vascular resistance
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Systolic pressure − diastolic pressure
, Rationale: Pulse pressure is defined as the difference between systolic and diastolic
blood pressure. It reflects the stroke volume ejected by the heart and the compliance of
the arterial system.
Question 11: A patient with severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia would
most likely exhibit clinical manifestations due to:
A. Excess protein accumulation
B. Renal damage
C. Deficiency of ATP
D. Hypocalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Deficiency of ATP
Rationale: Phosphate is a critical component of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the
primary energy currency of cells. Severe hypophosphatemia leads to ATP deficiency,
causing widespread cellular dysfunction and clinical symptoms.
Question 12: A patient presents with a tracheal shift to the right side. This
finding is most consistent with:
A. Right-sided pneumonia
B. Left-sided pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Left-sided pneumothorax
Rationale: A pneumothorax on the left side would cause air accumulation in the left
pleural space, pushing mediastinal structures including the trachea toward the opposite
(right) side. Pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and embolism do not typically cause
tracheal deviation.
Question 13: Which pulmonary function test finding is most consistent with a
diagnosis of asthma during an acute exacerbation?
A. Increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
B. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
C. Decreased functional residual capacity
D. Reduced total lung volume
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
Rationale: Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction. During an acute
attack, FEV1 is significantly reduced due to bronchoconstriction and airway
inflammation. Functional residual capacity and total lung volume are not primary
diagnostic parameters for asthma.
Question 14: The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS) is:
Pathophysiology 370 Midterm Exam Review & Nursing
Practice Questions | PATHO 370 Study Guide with
Answers & Detailed Rationales | Pathophysiology
Concepts, Cellular Injury, Inflammation, Immune
Response, Infection, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance, Acid-
Base Disorders, Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Renal,
Endocrine, Neurological, Gastrointestinal & Hematologic
Disease Processes, Signs & Symptoms, Risk Factors,
Diagnostics, Complications, Clinical Manifestations &
Nursing Implications
Question 1: A patient is diagnosed with tertiary prevention after experiencing
a myocardial infarction. Which intervention exemplifies this level of
prevention?
A. Immunization against influenza
B. Cardiac rehabilitation and cholesterol-lowering medication
C. Screening for hypertension
D. Annual physical examination
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cardiac rehabilitation and cholesterol-lowering
medication
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing disability and preventing further
complications after a disease has been diagnosed. Cardiac rehabilitation and medication
therapy aim to prevent recurrent cardiovascular events and improve quality of life
following a myocardial infarction.
Question 2: A disease that is consistently present within a specific geographic
region is best described as:
A. Epidemic
B. Pandemic
C. Endemic
D. Sporadic
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Endemic
Rationale: An endemic disease is one that is native to or consistently present within a
particular region or population. This differs from epidemic (rapid spread in a population)
and pandemic (global spread).
Question 3: The time between exposure to a pathogenic agent and the first
appearance of clinical signs and symptoms is known as the:
A. Prodromal period
B. Latent period
C. Convalescence period
D. Acute phase
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. Latent period
Rationale: The latent period represents the interval between exposure to an injurious
agent and the first appearance of signs or symptoms. The prodromal period follows the
latent period and is characterized by the onset of nonspecific symptoms.
Question 4: An increase in organ size resulting from an increased workload,
such as myocardial hypertrophy in hypertension, is termed:
A. Atrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Metaplasia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size that leads to an increase in
organ size. This is distinct from hyperplasia, which involves an increase in cell number.
Myocardial hypertrophy in response to hypertension is a classic example of hypertrophy.
Question 5: Which cellular response is considered a precursor to neoplastic
transformation?
A. Atrophy
B. Metaplasia
C. Dysplasia
D. Hypertrophy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by disordered cellular growth and is considered a
preneoplastic change. It often precedes the development of malignancy, particularly in
epithelial tissues. Atrophy, metaplasia, and hypertrophy are adaptive responses that are
not inherently preneoplastic.
Question 6: A patient experiencing a panic attack with hyperventilation is at
risk for which acid-base disturbance?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes excessive elimination of carbon dioxide, leading to a
decrease in arterial PCO2 and a resultant respiratory alkalosis. This is frequently
observed in panic attacks and anxiety disorders.
Question 7: Diarrhea resulting in significant bicarbonate loss would most likely
produce which acid-base imbalance?
,A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Metabolic acidosis
Rationale: Diarrhea causes loss of bicarbonate-rich intestinal fluids. Bicarbonate is a
base, so its loss leads to a relative excess of acid and results in metabolic acidosis.
Question 8: A patient in cardiogenic shock would be expected to demonstrate
which hemodynamic alteration?
A. Reduced cardiac output
B. Hypovolemia
C. Reduced systemic vascular resistance
D. Elevated mixed venous oxygen saturation
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Reduced cardiac output
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock results from severe ventricular dysfunction leading to
inadequate cardiac pumping. The hallmark is reduced cardiac output despite adequate
intravascular volume. Systemic vascular resistance is typically elevated due to
compensatory vasoconstriction.
Question 9: The common pathophysiological denominator in all forms of heart
failure is:
A. Poor diastolic filling
B. Reduced cardiac output
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Tissue ischemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Reduced cardiac output
Rationale: Regardless of the underlying cause, the common manifestation of heart
failure is the inability of the heart to pump blood adequately to meet metabolic
demands, resulting in reduced cardiac output. Clinical presentations vary depending on
which ventricle is affected.
Question 10: Pulse pressure is calculated by which formula?
A. Systolic pressure + diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure ÷ diastolic pressure
C. Systolic pressure − diastolic pressure
D. Systolic pressure × systemic vascular resistance
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Systolic pressure − diastolic pressure
, Rationale: Pulse pressure is defined as the difference between systolic and diastolic
blood pressure. It reflects the stroke volume ejected by the heart and the compliance of
the arterial system.
Question 11: A patient with severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia would
most likely exhibit clinical manifestations due to:
A. Excess protein accumulation
B. Renal damage
C. Deficiency of ATP
D. Hypocalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Deficiency of ATP
Rationale: Phosphate is a critical component of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the
primary energy currency of cells. Severe hypophosphatemia leads to ATP deficiency,
causing widespread cellular dysfunction and clinical symptoms.
Question 12: A patient presents with a tracheal shift to the right side. This
finding is most consistent with:
A. Right-sided pneumonia
B. Left-sided pneumothorax
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Left-sided pneumothorax
Rationale: A pneumothorax on the left side would cause air accumulation in the left
pleural space, pushing mediastinal structures including the trachea toward the opposite
(right) side. Pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and embolism do not typically cause
tracheal deviation.
Question 13: Which pulmonary function test finding is most consistent with a
diagnosis of asthma during an acute exacerbation?
A. Increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
B. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
C. Decreased functional residual capacity
D. Reduced total lung volume
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
Rationale: Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction. During an acute
attack, FEV1 is significantly reduced due to bronchoconstriction and airway
inflammation. Functional residual capacity and total lung volume are not primary
diagnostic parameters for asthma.
Question 14: The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS) is:
