NURS 5433 Week 4 Midterm Exam Family II FNP
Practice Test Bank | UTA Actual Exam Style Questions
& Verified Clinical Rationales Graded A+
Ace your high-stakes graduate nursing evaluation with this comprehensive NURS 5433
Family Nurse Practitioner II Week 4 midterm exam practice test bank tailored for the
University of Texas at Arlington. Master high-yield primary care clinical domains,
including evidence-based chronic disease management, advanced differential
diagnosis for adult and geriatric populations, complex multi-system disorders,
and prescriptive authority drug selections. Every verified question features a highly
detailed clinical rationale designed to sharpen your diagnostic reasoning skills, align
with UTA program metrics, and guarantee board certification readiness.
1. A 55-year-old client presents with a painless, gradual loss of central vision in
both eyes. Fundoscopic exam reveals drusen deposits in the macula. Which
condition is most likely?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Dry age-related macular degeneration
C) Wet age-related macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Dry AMD is characterized by drusen deposits and gradual central vision loss.
Wet AMD involves neovascularization and more rapid vision loss.
2. Which dietary supplements have been shown to slow the progression of dry
age-related macular degeneration?
A) Vitamin C and zinc only
B) AREDS2 formula (vitamins C, E, zinc, copper, lutein, zeaxanthin)
,C) Calcium and vitamin D
D) Iron and folate
Rationale: The AREDS2 formula contains vitamins C, E, zinc, copper, lutein, and
zeaxanthin and has been shown to slow progression of dry AMD.
3. A client with wet age-related macular degeneration is scheduled for intravitreal
injections. Which medication class is used?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) agents
C) Antibiotics
D) Beta-blockers
Rationale: Anti-VEGF agents (e.g., ranibizumab, aflibercept, bevacizumab) are injected
intravitreally to inhibit abnormal blood vessel growth in wet AMD.
4. Which condition presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye
described as a "curtain coming down"?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Macular hole
Rationale: Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden, painless, unilateral
vision loss described as a curtain descending. It is an ophthalmologic emergency requiring
immediate referral.
,5. Which condition is characterized by a cherry-red spot on the macula with
sudden painless vision loss?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Glaucoma
D) Cataracts
Rationale: Central retinal artery occlusion produces a cherry-red spot on the macula due
to the absence of blood flow, with surrounding retinal pallor. It is an emergency requiring
immediate intervention.
6. A client presents with sudden onset of floaters and flashes followed by a
curtain-like loss of vision. Which condition is most likely?
A) Central retinal artery occlusion
B) Retinal detachment
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Macular hole
Rationale: Retinal detachment presents with sudden floaters, flashes, and a curtain-like
visual field defect. It requires immediate surgical repair to prevent permanent vision loss.
7. Which condition is characterized by a full-thickness defect in the central
macula?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Macular hole
C) Retinal detachment
, D) Epiretinal membrane
Rationale: A macular hole is a full-thickness defect in the central macula, causing central
vision distortion and loss. It is more common in older women and may require surgical
repair.
8. A client with diabetes presents with sudden painless vision loss due to bleeding
into the vitreous. Which condition is most likely?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Vitreous hemorrhage
C) Macular degeneration
D) Central retinal artery occlusion
Rationale: Vitreous hemorrhage presents with sudden painless vision loss, often described
as seeing red or dark spots. It is commonly caused by proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
9. Which condition is characterized by a dilated pupil that does not react to light
and a droopy eyelid?
A) Horner syndrome
B) Third nerve palsy
C) Argyll Robertson pupil
D) Adie pupil
Rationale: Third nerve palsy presents with a dilated pupil that does not react to light
(mydriasis), ptosis (droopy eyelid), and ophthalmoplegia. It can be a sign of a life-
threatening aneurysm.
Practice Test Bank | UTA Actual Exam Style Questions
& Verified Clinical Rationales Graded A+
Ace your high-stakes graduate nursing evaluation with this comprehensive NURS 5433
Family Nurse Practitioner II Week 4 midterm exam practice test bank tailored for the
University of Texas at Arlington. Master high-yield primary care clinical domains,
including evidence-based chronic disease management, advanced differential
diagnosis for adult and geriatric populations, complex multi-system disorders,
and prescriptive authority drug selections. Every verified question features a highly
detailed clinical rationale designed to sharpen your diagnostic reasoning skills, align
with UTA program metrics, and guarantee board certification readiness.
1. A 55-year-old client presents with a painless, gradual loss of central vision in
both eyes. Fundoscopic exam reveals drusen deposits in the macula. Which
condition is most likely?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Dry age-related macular degeneration
C) Wet age-related macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Dry AMD is characterized by drusen deposits and gradual central vision loss.
Wet AMD involves neovascularization and more rapid vision loss.
2. Which dietary supplements have been shown to slow the progression of dry
age-related macular degeneration?
A) Vitamin C and zinc only
B) AREDS2 formula (vitamins C, E, zinc, copper, lutein, zeaxanthin)
,C) Calcium and vitamin D
D) Iron and folate
Rationale: The AREDS2 formula contains vitamins C, E, zinc, copper, lutein, and
zeaxanthin and has been shown to slow progression of dry AMD.
3. A client with wet age-related macular degeneration is scheduled for intravitreal
injections. Which medication class is used?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) agents
C) Antibiotics
D) Beta-blockers
Rationale: Anti-VEGF agents (e.g., ranibizumab, aflibercept, bevacizumab) are injected
intravitreally to inhibit abnormal blood vessel growth in wet AMD.
4. Which condition presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye
described as a "curtain coming down"?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Macular hole
Rationale: Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden, painless, unilateral
vision loss described as a curtain descending. It is an ophthalmologic emergency requiring
immediate referral.
,5. Which condition is characterized by a cherry-red spot on the macula with
sudden painless vision loss?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Glaucoma
D) Cataracts
Rationale: Central retinal artery occlusion produces a cherry-red spot on the macula due
to the absence of blood flow, with surrounding retinal pallor. It is an emergency requiring
immediate intervention.
6. A client presents with sudden onset of floaters and flashes followed by a
curtain-like loss of vision. Which condition is most likely?
A) Central retinal artery occlusion
B) Retinal detachment
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Macular hole
Rationale: Retinal detachment presents with sudden floaters, flashes, and a curtain-like
visual field defect. It requires immediate surgical repair to prevent permanent vision loss.
7. Which condition is characterized by a full-thickness defect in the central
macula?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Macular hole
C) Retinal detachment
, D) Epiretinal membrane
Rationale: A macular hole is a full-thickness defect in the central macula, causing central
vision distortion and loss. It is more common in older women and may require surgical
repair.
8. A client with diabetes presents with sudden painless vision loss due to bleeding
into the vitreous. Which condition is most likely?
A) Retinal detachment
B) Vitreous hemorrhage
C) Macular degeneration
D) Central retinal artery occlusion
Rationale: Vitreous hemorrhage presents with sudden painless vision loss, often described
as seeing red or dark spots. It is commonly caused by proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
9. Which condition is characterized by a dilated pupil that does not react to light
and a droopy eyelid?
A) Horner syndrome
B) Third nerve palsy
C) Argyll Robertson pupil
D) Adie pupil
Rationale: Third nerve palsy presents with a dilated pupil that does not react to light
(mydriasis), ptosis (droopy eyelid), and ophthalmoplegia. It can be a sign of a life-
threatening aneurysm.
