• HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG 1 LATEST 2025/
2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
WELL-ELABORATED RATIONALES/ GRADED A+|
EVOLVE HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL LATEST EXAM
(BRAND NEW!!)
A client taking a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum potassium level of 3. The nurse anticipates
which change in prescription for the client?
A) The dosage of the diuretic will be decreased.
B) The diuretic will be discontinued.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
D) The dosage of the diuretic will be increased. - Correct Answer :C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
P 1
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
This client's potassium level is too low (normal is 3.5 to 5). Taking a thiazide diuretic often results in a loss of
potassium, so a potassium supplement needs to be prescribed to restore a normal serum potassium level (C).
(A, B, and D) are not recommended actions for restoring a normal serum potassium level.
A client taking furosemide (Lasix), reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the
client?
A) What dose of medication are you taking?
B) Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
C) Have you lost weight recently?
D) At what time do you take your medication? - Correct Answer :D) At what time do you take your medication?
The nurse needs to first determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix (D). Because of the diuretic
effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia. The actual dose of
medication (A) is of less importance than the time taken. (B) is not related to the insomnia. (C) is valuable
information about the effect of the diuretic, but is not likely to be related to insomnia.
The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman who had a left radical mastectomy for
breast cancer. Which factor puts this client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
B) She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.
C) Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for hypertension.
D) Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano. - Correct Answer :A) She sustained an insect bite to her left
arm yesterday.
A radical mastectomy interrupts lymph flow, and the increased lymph flow that occurs in response to the insect
bite increases the risk for the occurrence of lymphedema (A). (B) is not a factor. Lymphedema is not significantly
related to vascular circulation (C). Only overuse of the arm, such as weight-lifting, would cause lymphedema--(D)
would not.
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about reducing the risk for toxic shock
syndrome (TSS). Which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
P 2
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution.
C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle.
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months. –
Correct Answer :D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
Correct selections are (D and E). The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent
pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs,
the client should notify the healthcare provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the
integrity of the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used
during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and is not indicated because conception does not
occur during this time. (F) is not necessary.
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years. What symptoms
should this client most likely exhibit?
A) Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
C) Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
D) Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances. –
Correct Answer :B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
(B) are common clinical features of Parkinsonism. (A) are symptoms of chorea, (C) of myasthenia gravis, and (D)
of multiple sclerosis.
P 3
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is
best for the nurse to provide?
A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
B) Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
C) Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
D) Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
- Correct Answer :A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
Estrogen deprivation decreases the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells, so vaginal tissues tend to
become thinner, drier (A), and the rugae become smoother which reduces vaginal stretching that contributes to
dyspareunia. Dyspareunia is not related to (B or C). While (D) can contribute to discomfort during intercourse,
the primary cause is hormone-related.
Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is known to have a pheochromocytoma?
A) Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
C) Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
D) Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness. –
Correct Answer :B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
(B) is the typical triad of symptoms of tumors of the adrenal medulla (symptoms depend on the relative
proportions of epinephrine and norepinephrine secretion). (A) lists the signs of latent tetany, exhibited by clients
diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. (C) lists the signs of an Addisonian (adrenal) crisis. (D) lists the signs of
hyperparathyroidism.
In preparing to administer intravenous albumin to a client following surgery, what is the priority nursing
intervention? (Select all that apply.)
A) Set the infusion pump to infuse the albumin within four hours.
P 4
EXAM
EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG 1 LATEST 2025/
2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
WELL-ELABORATED RATIONALES/ GRADED A+|
EVOLVE HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL LATEST EXAM
(BRAND NEW!!)
A client taking a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum potassium level of 3. The nurse anticipates
which change in prescription for the client?
A) The dosage of the diuretic will be decreased.
B) The diuretic will be discontinued.
C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
D) The dosage of the diuretic will be increased. - Correct Answer :C) A potassium supplement will be prescribed.
P 1
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
This client's potassium level is too low (normal is 3.5 to 5). Taking a thiazide diuretic often results in a loss of
potassium, so a potassium supplement needs to be prescribed to restore a normal serum potassium level (C).
(A, B, and D) are not recommended actions for restoring a normal serum potassium level.
A client taking furosemide (Lasix), reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the
client?
A) What dose of medication are you taking?
B) Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
C) Have you lost weight recently?
D) At what time do you take your medication? - Correct Answer :D) At what time do you take your medication?
The nurse needs to first determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix (D). Because of the diuretic
effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia. The actual dose of
medication (A) is of less importance than the time taken. (B) is not related to the insomnia. (C) is valuable
information about the effect of the diuretic, but is not likely to be related to insomnia.
The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman who had a left radical mastectomy for
breast cancer. Which factor puts this client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
B) She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.
C) Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for hypertension.
D) Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano. - Correct Answer :A) She sustained an insect bite to her left
arm yesterday.
A radical mastectomy interrupts lymph flow, and the increased lymph flow that occurs in response to the insect
bite increases the risk for the occurrence of lymphedema (A). (B) is not a factor. Lymphedema is not significantly
related to vascular circulation (C). Only overuse of the arm, such as weight-lifting, would cause lymphedema--(D)
would not.
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about reducing the risk for toxic shock
syndrome (TSS). Which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
P 2
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution.
C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle.
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months. –
Correct Answer :D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
Correct selections are (D and E). The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent
pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs,
the client should notify the healthcare provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the
integrity of the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used
during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and is not indicated because conception does not
occur during this time. (F) is not necessary.
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years. What symptoms
should this client most likely exhibit?
A) Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
C) Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
D) Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances. –
Correct Answer :B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
(B) are common clinical features of Parkinsonism. (A) are symptoms of chorea, (C) of myasthenia gravis, and (D)
of multiple sclerosis.
P 3
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is
best for the nurse to provide?
A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
B) Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
C) Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
D) Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
- Correct Answer :A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
Estrogen deprivation decreases the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells, so vaginal tissues tend to
become thinner, drier (A), and the rugae become smoother which reduces vaginal stretching that contributes to
dyspareunia. Dyspareunia is not related to (B or C). While (D) can contribute to discomfort during intercourse,
the primary cause is hormone-related.
Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is known to have a pheochromocytoma?
A) Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
C) Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
D) Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness. –
Correct Answer :B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
(B) is the typical triad of symptoms of tumors of the adrenal medulla (symptoms depend on the relative
proportions of epinephrine and norepinephrine secretion). (A) lists the signs of latent tetany, exhibited by clients
diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. (C) lists the signs of an Addisonian (adrenal) crisis. (D) lists the signs of
hyperparathyroidism.
In preparing to administer intravenous albumin to a client following surgery, what is the priority nursing
intervention? (Select all that apply.)
A) Set the infusion pump to infuse the albumin within four hours.
P 4
