EXAM
EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG LATEST 2025/
2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
WELL-ELABORATED RATIONALES/ GRADED A+|
EVOLVE HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL LATEST EXAM
(BRAND NEW!!)
Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?
A) Breast self-examinations are not needed if annual mammograms are obtained.
B) Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
D) Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms. –
P 1
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
Correct Answer :C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly mammogram after age 40 (C). Breast self-exam (A)
continues to be a priority recommendation for all women because a small lump (or tumor) is often first felt by a
woman before a mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a mammogram is low, so (B) is not
normally provided. The frequency of using routine and ultrasound mammograms (D) in women with high-risk
variables, such as a history of breast cancer, the presence of BRC1 and BRC2 genes, or 2 first-degree relatives
with breast cancer, should be recommended and followed closely by the healthcare provider.
In assessing cancer risk, the nurse identifies which woman as being at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
A) A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
C) A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
D) A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9. –
Correct Answer :B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
The most predictive risk factors for development of breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive family
history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e., mother or sister). Other risk factors include nulliparity, no
history of breastfeeding, early menarche and late menopause. Although all of the women described have one of
the risk factors for developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over (A, C, and D).
Which reaction should the nurse identify in a client who is responding to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous
system?
A) Pupil constriction.
B) Increased heart rate.
C) Bronchial constriction.
D) Decreased blood pressure. –
Correct Answer :B) Increased heart rate.
P 2
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
Any stressor that is perceived as threatening to homeostasis acts to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
and manifests as a flight-or-fight response, which includes an increase in heart rate (B). (A, C, and D) are
responses of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A client receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for hyperlipidemia should be evaluated for what vitamin deficiency?
A) K.
B) B12.
C) B6.
D) C. - Correct Answer :A) K.
Clients should be monitored for an increased prothrombin time and prolonged bleeding times which would alert
the nurse to a vitamin K deficiency (A). These drugs reduce absorption of the fat soluble (lipid) vitamins A, D, E,
and K. (B, C, and D) are not fat soluble vitamins.
A client experiencing uncontrolled atrial fibrillation is admitted to the telemetry unit. What initial medication
should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?
A) Xylocaine (Lidocaine).
B) Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin).
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin). - Correct Answer :D) Digoxin (Lanoxin).
Digoxin (Lanoxin) (D) is administered for uncontrolled, symptomatic atrial fibrillation resulting in a decreased
cardiac output. Digoxin slows the rate of conduction by prolonging the refractory period of the AV node, thus
slowing the ventricular response, decreasing the heart rate, and effecting cardiac output. (A, B, and C) are not
indicated in the initial treatment of uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.
What instruction should the nurse give a client who is diagnosed with fibrocystic changes of the breast?
A) Observe cyst size fluctuations as a sign of malignancy.
B) Use estrogen supplements to reduce breast discomfort.
C) Notify the healthcare provider if whitish nipple discharge occurs.
P 3
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly. –
Correct Answer :D) Perform a breast self-exam (BSE) procedure monthly.
Fibrocystic changes in the breast are related to excess fibrous tissue, proliferation of mammary ducts and cyst
formation that cause edema and nerve irritation. These changes obscure typical diagnostic tests, such as
mammography, due to an increased breast density. Women with fibrocystic breasts should be instructed to
carefully perform monthly BSE (D) and consider changes in any previous "lumpiness." Fibrocystic disease does
not increase the risk of breast cancer (A). Cyst size fluctuates with the menstrual cycle, and typically lessens after
menopause, and responds with a heightened sensitivity to circulating estrogen (B), which is not indicated.
Nipple discharge associated with fibrocystic breasts is often milky or watery-milky and is an expected finding (C).
The nurse is assessing a client's laboratory values following administration of chemotherapy. Which lab value
leads the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)?
A) Serum PTT of 10 seconds.
B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
C) Oxygen saturation of 90%.
D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl. - Correct Answer :B) Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl.
TLS results in hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia. A serum calcium level of 5
(B), which is low, is an indicator of possible tumor lysis syndrome. (A, C, and D) are not particularly related to TLS.
A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the
nurse writes a goal of, "The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure." Which symptoms are most
important to teach the client?
A) Facial flushing.
B) Fever.
C) Pounding headache.
D) Feelings of dizziness. - Correct Answer :D) Feelings of dizziness.
P 4