WGU D444
Adult Health 1
Objective Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢125 OA Exam Questions w/
Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical
Prioritization
➢Zach's Study Guide D444
➢ Adult Health Study Guide: Core Systems & Infections
,PREVIEW PAGES BELOW
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
Continue with the preview pages below, then unlock the full resource.
QUESTIONS OR MORE STUDY RESOURCES?
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
D444 OA EXAM .............................................................................2
D444 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization ...................................... 66
Zach's Study Guide D444 ................................................................. 74
Adult Health Study Guide: Core Systems & Infections ........................... 89
D444 OA EXAM
1. A client with glaucoma is preparing for discharge. Which instruction should the
nurse prioritize?
A. Avoid bending at the waist, coughing, or straining
B. Use miotic eye drops only when vision is blurry
C. Resume weightlifting gradually over 2 weeks
D. Sleep with the head of bed flat to reduce eye strain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP).
Bending, coughing, and straining significantly elevate IOP, which can worsen
optic nerve damage and lead to vision loss. Option B is incorrect because miotics
,like pilocarpine must be used as prescribed, not PRN. Option C is incorrect
because lifting increases IOP and is contraindicated. Option D is incorrect
because elevating the HOB actually helps reduce IOP; lying flat increases venous
pressure in the eye.
2. A client returns from cataract surgery. Which discharge instruction is most
appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Avoid bending at the waist
B. Lift objects no heavier than 10 pounds
C. Use stool softeners to prevent straining
D. Resume driving the day after surgery
E. Sleep on the operative side to promote drainage
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Post-cataract surgery, the priority is preventing increased IOP. Bending
at the waist (A), lifting >10 lbs (B), and straining during bowel movements (C) all
raise IOP and threaten surgical outcomes. Option D is incorrect because vision is
often blurry post-op, and driving is unsafe. Option E is incorrect because sleeping
on the operative side increases pressure on the healing eye; clients should sleep
on the non-operative side or with an eye shield.
3. A client presents with intense eye pain, photophobia, and reports a sensation
of something in the eye after gardening. Which intervention should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Prescribing topical anesthetic drops for home use
B. Applying an antibiotic ointment and possibly an eye patch
C. Administering corticosteroid drops immediately
D. Irrigating the eye with normal saline for 20 minutes
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with a corneal abrasion. Treatment
includes antibiotic ointment to prevent infection and patching to promote
healing. Option A is a critical contraindication—topical anesthetics for home use
mask worsening pain and can cause "corneal melting" (permanent damage).
Option C is generally contraindicated initially because steroids suppress immune
response and may cause fungal overgrowth or corneal melting. Option D
describes treatment for a chemical burn, not an abrasion.
4. A client reports sudden onset of flashing lights, floaters, and a "curtain" over
part of their vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Schedule a routine ophthalmology appointment within 48 hours
B. Instruct the client to rest the eyes and avoid bright lights
C. Recognize this as an ocular emergency and facilitate immediate treatment
D. Administer miotic eye drops to constrict the pupil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flashing lights, floaters, and a "curtain" over vision are hallmark signs
of retinal detachment—an ocular emergency requiring immediate surgical
intervention to prevent permanent vision loss. Delaying care (A, B) risks
irreversible damage. Option D is incorrect; miotics are used for glaucoma, not
retinal detachment.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with Ménière's disease. Which dietary modification
should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Increase sodium intake to maintain fluid balance
B. Follow a low-sodium diet
C. Eliminate all carbohydrates
D. Increase caffeine intake to improve alertness during vertigo episodes
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ménière's disease is an inner ear disorder characterized by vertigo,
tinnitus, and hearing loss caused by endolymphatic hydrops (fluid accumulation).
A low-sodium diet reduces fluid retention in the inner ear. Diuretics are also
commonly prescribed. Option A is opposite of correct management. Option C is
unrelated. Option D is incorrect because caffeine is a stimulant that can worsen
tinnitus and vertigo.
6. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted during a summer heat wave.
Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to take hot baths to relax muscles
B. Keep the room cool and avoid overheating
C. Administer high-dose corticosteroids prophylactically
D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MS is an autoimmune demyelinating disease where heat stress
worsens symptoms (Uhthoff's phenomenon). Keeping the environment cool
prevents flare-ups. Option A is dangerous—hot baths exacerbate symptoms.
Option C is not a prophylactic measure; steroids treat acute exacerbations, not
prevent heat-related symptoms. Option D is partially correct but incomplete;
cooling the environment is the priority.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with myasthenia gravis. Which finding is most
consistent with the disease?
A. Muscle weakness that improves with activity and worsens with rest
B. Ptosis and dysphagia that worsen as the day progresses
C. Resting tremor and rigidity in the extremities
D. Bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness that worsens
with activity and improves with rest, with ptosis (drooping eyelids) and dysphagia
being hallmark signs. Option A reverses the correct pattern. Option C describes
Parkinson's disease. Option D describes Ménière's disease.
8. A client with myasthenia gravis is scheduled for meals. Which medication
timing is most appropriate?
A. Give pyridostigmine immediately after meals
B. Give pyridostigmine 30 minutes before meals
C. Hold pyridostigmine if the client is NPO
D. Administer pyridostigmine at bedtime only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pyridostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) should be given 30–
60 minutes before meals to maximize muscle strength during swallowing and
reduce aspiration risk. Giving it after meals (A) would not help with eating. Option
C is incorrect because pyridostigmine should not be held without provider orders.
Option D is incorrect because dosing is scheduled around activity and meals, not
just bedtime.
9. A client with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing
intervention is the priority?
A. Administer levodopa on a flexible schedule to accommodate tests
B. Administer levodopa on time and prevent falls
C. Restrict protein intake to enhance medication absorption
D. Encourage bed rest to conserve energy
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's disease is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia, and shuffling gait. Levodopa must be given on time to maintain
therapeutic dopamine levels and prevent "off" episodes. Fall prevention is critical
due to postural instability. Option A is dangerous—timing must be precise.
Option C is partially correct (protein can interfere with levodopa absorption) but
not the priority. Option D is incorrect because mobility should be encouraged
within safety limits.
10. A client has a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Insert an oral airway to maintain the airway
B. Turn the client onto their side and protect the head
C. Restrain the client's limbs to prevent injury
D. Administer IV diazepam immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is protecting the airway and preventing
injury. Turning the client on their side allows secretions to drain and prevents
aspiration. Option A is contraindicated—never insert anything into the mouth
during a seizure. Option C is contraindicated—never restrain a seizing patient; it
causes musculoskeletal injury. Option D may be needed for status epilepticus but
is not the first action for a single witnessed seizure.
11. A client with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) suddenly develops severe
dyspnea and chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer heparin IV push immediately
B. Apply oxygen and prepare for anticoagulant therapy
,C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG before any intervention
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PE is a life-threatening blockage in the pulmonary artery, often from a
DVT. The priority is oxygenation first, then anticoagulation. Option A is incorrect
because heparin requires orders and proper dosing; oxygen is the immediate
priority. Option C delays critical care. Option D is contraindicated—
Trendelenburg increases venous return and could worsen the embolism.
12. A nurse is teaching a client about melanoma detection. Which characteristic
should the client report immediately?
A. A symmetrical, round, brown mole present since birth
B. A lesion with irregular borders, multiple colors, and recent growth
C. A small, flat, tan freckle on the shoulder
D. A raised, flesh-colored wart with a rough surface
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Melanoma, the most aggressive skin cancer, is identified by the ABCDE
rule: Asymmetry, irregular Border, varied Color, Diameter >6mm, and Evolving
changes. Option B describes multiple warning signs. Option A describes a benign
mole. Option C describes a freckle. Option D describes a wart (viral, not
melanoma).
13. A client with disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) is admitted to the hospital.
Which precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Droplet precautions
,C. Airborne and contact precautions
D. Contact precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) requires both airborne and
contact precautions because the varicella-zoster virus can spread via airborne
droplet nuclei and direct contact. Localized shingles requires contact precautions
only. Option A is insufficient. Option B is incorrect—shingles is not droplet-only.
Option D is insufficient for disseminated cases.
14. A client's laboratory results show a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG
finding should the nurse anticipate?
A. Flattened T waves and U waves
B. Peaked T waves and widened QRS complex
C. ST-segment elevation and tall R waves
D. Prolonged PR interval and absent P waves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.0 mEq/L) causes peaked T waves, widened QRS
complexes, and can progress to ventricular fibrillation—a cardiac emergency.
Option A describes hypokalemia. Option C describes myocardial infarction.
Option D describes hyperkalemia in later stages but peaked T waves appear first.
15. A client is receiving IV potassium replacement. Which action by the nurse is
correct?
A. Administer via IV push over 2 minutes for rapid correction
B. Dilute in appropriate fluid and infuse via pump
C. Mix with dextrose-containing solution to enhance absorption
D. Check the potassium level 1 hour after starting the infusion
Adult Health 1
Objective Assessment
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢125 OA Exam Questions w/
Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical
Prioritization
➢Zach's Study Guide D444
➢ Adult Health Study Guide: Core Systems & Infections
,PREVIEW PAGES BELOW
Get the Complete PDF
After Purchase
Continue with the preview pages below, then unlock the full resource.
QUESTIONS OR MORE STUDY RESOURCES?
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study
resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
D444 OA EXAM .............................................................................2
D444 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization ...................................... 66
Zach's Study Guide D444 ................................................................. 74
Adult Health Study Guide: Core Systems & Infections ........................... 89
D444 OA EXAM
1. A client with glaucoma is preparing for discharge. Which instruction should the
nurse prioritize?
A. Avoid bending at the waist, coughing, or straining
B. Use miotic eye drops only when vision is blurry
C. Resume weightlifting gradually over 2 weeks
D. Sleep with the head of bed flat to reduce eye strain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP).
Bending, coughing, and straining significantly elevate IOP, which can worsen
optic nerve damage and lead to vision loss. Option B is incorrect because miotics
,like pilocarpine must be used as prescribed, not PRN. Option C is incorrect
because lifting increases IOP and is contraindicated. Option D is incorrect
because elevating the HOB actually helps reduce IOP; lying flat increases venous
pressure in the eye.
2. A client returns from cataract surgery. Which discharge instruction is most
appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. Avoid bending at the waist
B. Lift objects no heavier than 10 pounds
C. Use stool softeners to prevent straining
D. Resume driving the day after surgery
E. Sleep on the operative side to promote drainage
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Post-cataract surgery, the priority is preventing increased IOP. Bending
at the waist (A), lifting >10 lbs (B), and straining during bowel movements (C) all
raise IOP and threaten surgical outcomes. Option D is incorrect because vision is
often blurry post-op, and driving is unsafe. Option E is incorrect because sleeping
on the operative side increases pressure on the healing eye; clients should sleep
on the non-operative side or with an eye shield.
3. A client presents with intense eye pain, photophobia, and reports a sensation
of something in the eye after gardening. Which intervention should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Prescribing topical anesthetic drops for home use
B. Applying an antibiotic ointment and possibly an eye patch
C. Administering corticosteroid drops immediately
D. Irrigating the eye with normal saline for 20 minutes
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is consistent with a corneal abrasion. Treatment
includes antibiotic ointment to prevent infection and patching to promote
healing. Option A is a critical contraindication—topical anesthetics for home use
mask worsening pain and can cause "corneal melting" (permanent damage).
Option C is generally contraindicated initially because steroids suppress immune
response and may cause fungal overgrowth or corneal melting. Option D
describes treatment for a chemical burn, not an abrasion.
4. A client reports sudden onset of flashing lights, floaters, and a "curtain" over
part of their vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Schedule a routine ophthalmology appointment within 48 hours
B. Instruct the client to rest the eyes and avoid bright lights
C. Recognize this as an ocular emergency and facilitate immediate treatment
D. Administer miotic eye drops to constrict the pupil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flashing lights, floaters, and a "curtain" over vision are hallmark signs
of retinal detachment—an ocular emergency requiring immediate surgical
intervention to prevent permanent vision loss. Delaying care (A, B) risks
irreversible damage. Option D is incorrect; miotics are used for glaucoma, not
retinal detachment.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with Ménière's disease. Which dietary modification
should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Increase sodium intake to maintain fluid balance
B. Follow a low-sodium diet
C. Eliminate all carbohydrates
D. Increase caffeine intake to improve alertness during vertigo episodes
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ménière's disease is an inner ear disorder characterized by vertigo,
tinnitus, and hearing loss caused by endolymphatic hydrops (fluid accumulation).
A low-sodium diet reduces fluid retention in the inner ear. Diuretics are also
commonly prescribed. Option A is opposite of correct management. Option C is
unrelated. Option D is incorrect because caffeine is a stimulant that can worsen
tinnitus and vertigo.
6. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted during a summer heat wave.
Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to take hot baths to relax muscles
B. Keep the room cool and avoid overheating
C. Administer high-dose corticosteroids prophylactically
D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MS is an autoimmune demyelinating disease where heat stress
worsens symptoms (Uhthoff's phenomenon). Keeping the environment cool
prevents flare-ups. Option A is dangerous—hot baths exacerbate symptoms.
Option C is not a prophylactic measure; steroids treat acute exacerbations, not
prevent heat-related symptoms. Option D is partially correct but incomplete;
cooling the environment is the priority.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with myasthenia gravis. Which finding is most
consistent with the disease?
A. Muscle weakness that improves with activity and worsens with rest
B. Ptosis and dysphagia that worsen as the day progresses
C. Resting tremor and rigidity in the extremities
D. Bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness that worsens
with activity and improves with rest, with ptosis (drooping eyelids) and dysphagia
being hallmark signs. Option A reverses the correct pattern. Option C describes
Parkinson's disease. Option D describes Ménière's disease.
8. A client with myasthenia gravis is scheduled for meals. Which medication
timing is most appropriate?
A. Give pyridostigmine immediately after meals
B. Give pyridostigmine 30 minutes before meals
C. Hold pyridostigmine if the client is NPO
D. Administer pyridostigmine at bedtime only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pyridostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) should be given 30–
60 minutes before meals to maximize muscle strength during swallowing and
reduce aspiration risk. Giving it after meals (A) would not help with eating. Option
C is incorrect because pyridostigmine should not be held without provider orders.
Option D is incorrect because dosing is scheduled around activity and meals, not
just bedtime.
9. A client with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing
intervention is the priority?
A. Administer levodopa on a flexible schedule to accommodate tests
B. Administer levodopa on time and prevent falls
C. Restrict protein intake to enhance medication absorption
D. Encourage bed rest to conserve energy
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's disease is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia, and shuffling gait. Levodopa must be given on time to maintain
therapeutic dopamine levels and prevent "off" episodes. Fall prevention is critical
due to postural instability. Option A is dangerous—timing must be precise.
Option C is partially correct (protein can interfere with levodopa absorption) but
not the priority. Option D is incorrect because mobility should be encouraged
within safety limits.
10. A client has a witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Insert an oral airway to maintain the airway
B. Turn the client onto their side and protect the head
C. Restrain the client's limbs to prevent injury
D. Administer IV diazepam immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is protecting the airway and preventing
injury. Turning the client on their side allows secretions to drain and prevents
aspiration. Option A is contraindicated—never insert anything into the mouth
during a seizure. Option C is contraindicated—never restrain a seizing patient; it
causes musculoskeletal injury. Option D may be needed for status epilepticus but
is not the first action for a single witnessed seizure.
11. A client with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) suddenly develops severe
dyspnea and chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer heparin IV push immediately
B. Apply oxygen and prepare for anticoagulant therapy
,C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG before any intervention
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PE is a life-threatening blockage in the pulmonary artery, often from a
DVT. The priority is oxygenation first, then anticoagulation. Option A is incorrect
because heparin requires orders and proper dosing; oxygen is the immediate
priority. Option C delays critical care. Option D is contraindicated—
Trendelenburg increases venous return and could worsen the embolism.
12. A nurse is teaching a client about melanoma detection. Which characteristic
should the client report immediately?
A. A symmetrical, round, brown mole present since birth
B. A lesion with irregular borders, multiple colors, and recent growth
C. A small, flat, tan freckle on the shoulder
D. A raised, flesh-colored wart with a rough surface
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Melanoma, the most aggressive skin cancer, is identified by the ABCDE
rule: Asymmetry, irregular Border, varied Color, Diameter >6mm, and Evolving
changes. Option B describes multiple warning signs. Option A describes a benign
mole. Option C describes a freckle. Option D describes a wart (viral, not
melanoma).
13. A client with disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) is admitted to the hospital.
Which precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Droplet precautions
,C. Airborne and contact precautions
D. Contact precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) requires both airborne and
contact precautions because the varicella-zoster virus can spread via airborne
droplet nuclei and direct contact. Localized shingles requires contact precautions
only. Option A is insufficient. Option B is incorrect—shingles is not droplet-only.
Option D is insufficient for disseminated cases.
14. A client's laboratory results show a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG
finding should the nurse anticipate?
A. Flattened T waves and U waves
B. Peaked T waves and widened QRS complex
C. ST-segment elevation and tall R waves
D. Prolonged PR interval and absent P waves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.0 mEq/L) causes peaked T waves, widened QRS
complexes, and can progress to ventricular fibrillation—a cardiac emergency.
Option A describes hypokalemia. Option C describes myocardial infarction.
Option D describes hyperkalemia in later stages but peaked T waves appear first.
15. A client is receiving IV potassium replacement. Which action by the nurse is
correct?
A. Administer via IV push over 2 minutes for rapid correction
B. Dilute in appropriate fluid and infuse via pump
C. Mix with dextrose-containing solution to enhance absorption
D. Check the potassium level 1 hour after starting the infusion
