ATI RN MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING
2026–2027 | EXAM PREP & PRACTICE
QUESTIONS | ANTEPARTUM, LABOR,
POSTPARTUM & NEWBORN CARE
ATI RN MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING 2026–2027 | EXAM PREP & PRACTICE
QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• This exam prep comprises 200 rigorously vetted multiple-choice questions across
antepartum, labor, postpartum, and newborn care domains to simulate authentic
ATI-level assessment scenarios and strengthen clinical decision-making.
• Study this material by working through 20–25 questions daily, reviewing rationales
for both correct and incorrect options to deepen conceptual understanding rather
than memorizing isolated facts.
QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for her
first prenatal visit. She reports that her last menstrual period was 12 weeks
ago. Which of the following is the most accurate assessment of fetal
development at this gestational age?
A) The fetal heart is beginning to form and limb buds are visible on ultrasound.
B) Fetal movements are strong enough for the mother to feel regularly.
C) The fetus weighs approximately 500 grams and measures 14 cm in length.
D) Fingernails and toenails are beginning to develop and external genitalia are
visible.
E) The fetus is viable and can survive if delivery occurs at this gestational age.
D) Fingernails and toenails are beginning to develop and external genitalia
are visible.
,Rationale: At 12 weeks gestation (end of first trimester), the fetus measures
approximately 5.5 cm in length (crown-rump) and weighs about 18 grams.
Fingernails and toenails have begun to develop, external genitalia are
distinguishable (though still ambiguous on ultrasound), and basic organ systems
are formed. Option A is accurate for 8–9 weeks. Option B describes quickening (18–
20 weeks in primigravidas). Option C represents measurements from 20 weeks.
Option E is incorrect as viability begins at 22–23 weeks with neonatal intensive care
support.
QUESTION 2
A client at 20 weeks gestation reports sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
and vaginal spotting. On examination, the cervix is dilated 2 cm and tissue is
protruding through the cervical os. What is the most appropriate initial
nursing action?
A) Insert a sterile speculum and obtain a sample of cervical tissue for culture.
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider immediately.
C) Have the client void and then perform a sterile vaginal ultrasound.
D) Administer an antipyretic and monitor vital signs every 15 minutes.
E) Provide reassurance that spotting is common and schedule a follow-up
ultrasound.
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider
immediately.
Rationale: This clinical presentation is consistent with an inevitable or incomplete
abortion with tissue protruding through the cervical os. The immediate priority is to
notify the provider as this is a potential obstetric emergency. Trendelenburg
position may slow blood loss and improve placental perfusion. Option A risks
infection and disturbs critical tissue. Option C delays care. Options D and E
minimize the severity of the situation. Time-sensitive intervention is required.
,QUESTION 3
A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 160/110
mmHg, proteinuria of 3+, and severe headache with visual disturbances.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and nifedipine for blood pressure
control.
B) Labetalol for blood pressure reduction and acetaminophen for headache relief.
C) Hydralazine IV push followed by oral nifedipine dosing schedule.
D) Furosemide diuretic to reduce fluid overload and blood pressure.
E) Aspirin daily to prevent progression to eclampsia.
A) Magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and nifedipine for blood
pressure control.
Rationale: This client meets criteria for severe preeclampsia (SBP ≥160, DBP ≥110,
proteinuria 3+, and CNS symptoms including headache and visual changes). First-
line treatment involves magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) IV to prevent eclamptic
seizures and an antihypertensive agent (first-line options include IV labetalol or oral
nifedipine) to lower BP. Option B omits seizure prophylaxis. Option C is IV push
hydralazine, reserved for acute hypertensive crises. Option D can worsen perfusion.
Option E is preventive, not therapeutic for severe disease.
QUESTION 4
During a non-stress test at 36 weeks gestation, the fetal heart rate baseline is
140 bpm with two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds occurring within
a 20-minute period. There are no decelerations. Which of the following best
describes this finding?
A) Reactive NST—reassuring fetal status with normal baseline and accelerations
meeting criteria.
, B) Non-reactive NST requiring further evaluation and possible fetal monitoring.
C) Equivocal NST requiring repeat testing within 24 hours.
D) Concerning pattern suggesting fetal hypoxia and need for immediate delivery.
E) Inconclusive due to insufficient number of accelerations recorded.
A) Reactive NST—reassuring fetal status with normal baseline and
accelerations meeting criteria.
Rationale: A reactive (reassuring) NST requires baseline fetal heart rate 110–160
bpm, two accelerations of ≥15 bpm above baseline lasting ≥15 seconds within a 20-
minute window, and absent decelerations. This client meets all criteria (baseline
140, two accelerations of 15 bpm × 15 sec, no decelerations). This is reassuring for
fetal well-being. Options B, C, D, and E misinterpret a normal tracing.
QUESTION 5
A multiparous client at 39 weeks gestation with rupture of membranes 18
hours prior presents in active labor. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), and fetal
heart rate shows variable decelerations. Which of the following is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Notify the provider of possible chorioamnionitis and prepare for expedited
delivery.
B) Administer intravenous fluids and increase fetal monitoring frequency to every
15 minutes.
C) Obtain vaginal culture and initiate oral antibiotics immediately.
D) Encourage continued labor progress and reassure the client that fever is normal.
E) Perform sterile vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation and station.
A) Notify the provider of possible chorioamnionitis and prepare for
expedited delivery.
Rationale: This client has classic signs of chorioamnionitis: prolonged rupture of
membranes (>18 hours), maternal fever (≥38°C), and fetal tachycardia with variable
2026–2027 | EXAM PREP & PRACTICE
QUESTIONS | ANTEPARTUM, LABOR,
POSTPARTUM & NEWBORN CARE
ATI RN MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING 2026–2027 | EXAM PREP & PRACTICE
QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• This exam prep comprises 200 rigorously vetted multiple-choice questions across
antepartum, labor, postpartum, and newborn care domains to simulate authentic
ATI-level assessment scenarios and strengthen clinical decision-making.
• Study this material by working through 20–25 questions daily, reviewing rationales
for both correct and incorrect options to deepen conceptual understanding rather
than memorizing isolated facts.
QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for her
first prenatal visit. She reports that her last menstrual period was 12 weeks
ago. Which of the following is the most accurate assessment of fetal
development at this gestational age?
A) The fetal heart is beginning to form and limb buds are visible on ultrasound.
B) Fetal movements are strong enough for the mother to feel regularly.
C) The fetus weighs approximately 500 grams and measures 14 cm in length.
D) Fingernails and toenails are beginning to develop and external genitalia are
visible.
E) The fetus is viable and can survive if delivery occurs at this gestational age.
D) Fingernails and toenails are beginning to develop and external genitalia
are visible.
,Rationale: At 12 weeks gestation (end of first trimester), the fetus measures
approximately 5.5 cm in length (crown-rump) and weighs about 18 grams.
Fingernails and toenails have begun to develop, external genitalia are
distinguishable (though still ambiguous on ultrasound), and basic organ systems
are formed. Option A is accurate for 8–9 weeks. Option B describes quickening (18–
20 weeks in primigravidas). Option C represents measurements from 20 weeks.
Option E is incorrect as viability begins at 22–23 weeks with neonatal intensive care
support.
QUESTION 2
A client at 20 weeks gestation reports sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
and vaginal spotting. On examination, the cervix is dilated 2 cm and tissue is
protruding through the cervical os. What is the most appropriate initial
nursing action?
A) Insert a sterile speculum and obtain a sample of cervical tissue for culture.
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider immediately.
C) Have the client void and then perform a sterile vaginal ultrasound.
D) Administer an antipyretic and monitor vital signs every 15 minutes.
E) Provide reassurance that spotting is common and schedule a follow-up
ultrasound.
B) Place the client in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider
immediately.
Rationale: This clinical presentation is consistent with an inevitable or incomplete
abortion with tissue protruding through the cervical os. The immediate priority is to
notify the provider as this is a potential obstetric emergency. Trendelenburg
position may slow blood loss and improve placental perfusion. Option A risks
infection and disturbs critical tissue. Option C delays care. Options D and E
minimize the severity of the situation. Time-sensitive intervention is required.
,QUESTION 3
A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 160/110
mmHg, proteinuria of 3+, and severe headache with visual disturbances.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and nifedipine for blood pressure
control.
B) Labetalol for blood pressure reduction and acetaminophen for headache relief.
C) Hydralazine IV push followed by oral nifedipine dosing schedule.
D) Furosemide diuretic to reduce fluid overload and blood pressure.
E) Aspirin daily to prevent progression to eclampsia.
A) Magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and nifedipine for blood
pressure control.
Rationale: This client meets criteria for severe preeclampsia (SBP ≥160, DBP ≥110,
proteinuria 3+, and CNS symptoms including headache and visual changes). First-
line treatment involves magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) IV to prevent eclamptic
seizures and an antihypertensive agent (first-line options include IV labetalol or oral
nifedipine) to lower BP. Option B omits seizure prophylaxis. Option C is IV push
hydralazine, reserved for acute hypertensive crises. Option D can worsen perfusion.
Option E is preventive, not therapeutic for severe disease.
QUESTION 4
During a non-stress test at 36 weeks gestation, the fetal heart rate baseline is
140 bpm with two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds occurring within
a 20-minute period. There are no decelerations. Which of the following best
describes this finding?
A) Reactive NST—reassuring fetal status with normal baseline and accelerations
meeting criteria.
, B) Non-reactive NST requiring further evaluation and possible fetal monitoring.
C) Equivocal NST requiring repeat testing within 24 hours.
D) Concerning pattern suggesting fetal hypoxia and need for immediate delivery.
E) Inconclusive due to insufficient number of accelerations recorded.
A) Reactive NST—reassuring fetal status with normal baseline and
accelerations meeting criteria.
Rationale: A reactive (reassuring) NST requires baseline fetal heart rate 110–160
bpm, two accelerations of ≥15 bpm above baseline lasting ≥15 seconds within a 20-
minute window, and absent decelerations. This client meets all criteria (baseline
140, two accelerations of 15 bpm × 15 sec, no decelerations). This is reassuring for
fetal well-being. Options B, C, D, and E misinterpret a normal tracing.
QUESTION 5
A multiparous client at 39 weeks gestation with rupture of membranes 18
hours prior presents in active labor. Temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), and fetal
heart rate shows variable decelerations. Which of the following is the nurse's
priority action?
A) Notify the provider of possible chorioamnionitis and prepare for expedited
delivery.
B) Administer intravenous fluids and increase fetal monitoring frequency to every
15 minutes.
C) Obtain vaginal culture and initiate oral antibiotics immediately.
D) Encourage continued labor progress and reassure the client that fever is normal.
E) Perform sterile vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation and station.
A) Notify the provider of possible chorioamnionitis and prepare for
expedited delivery.
Rationale: This client has classic signs of chorioamnionitis: prolonged rupture of
membranes (>18 hours), maternal fever (≥38°C), and fetal tachycardia with variable
