CNRN EXAM PREP |ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS|BRAND NEW 2026-2027
UPDATE|GRADED A+
Question 1
Which of the following tumor types will have a higher incidence in pediatric populations
and have a decreased incidence with age?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
C. Central nervous system lymphoma
D. Metastatic brain tumor
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Both pilocytic astrocytoma and medulloblastoma brain tumors are more
commonly found in the younger population. The incidence of these tumors will decrease
with age. Glioblastomas are more frequently found in young adults. CNS lymphoma and
metastasis will have an increased incidence with age.
Question 2
A patient presents with progressive neurological deficits and has a recent history of
transient neurological attack. This patient is most likely experiencing which of the
following types of stroke?
A. Thrombotic stroke
B. Embolic stroke
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Vasospasms
CORRECT ANSWER
A
1
@THE STUDY VAULT
, Rationale: Thrombotic strokes frequently present as a worsening neurological status over
a short period of time. Patients may have experienced episodes of transient ischemic
attacks (TIAs) before the onset of the ischemic strokes. Embolic strokes tend to have a
more sudden onset without progression in symptoms. Subarachnoid hemorrhages (SAHs)
are a sudden onset of headache without the history of transient neurological deficits.
Vasospasms are associated with SAH, and symptoms occur most commonly between 7
and 10 days after the SAH.
Question 3
Which of the following best describes a coup injury?
A. Injury occurs at the point of impact.
B. Injury occurs on the contralateral side of impact.
C. It is an acceleration injury.
D. It is a deceleration injury.
CORRECT ANSWER
A
Rationale: A coup injury occurs at the point of impact, and a contracoup injury occurs on
the contralateral side. The mechanism of injury for acceleration injuries is commonly
defined as a moving object hitting a stationary head, whereas a deceleration injury
involves a moving head hitting a stationary object.
Question 4
A patient is admitted to the ICU with persistent epileptic seizures lasting beyond 90
minutes. Which of the following best describes the seizure activity?
A. Epileptic seizure
B. Epilepsy
C. Refractory seizure
D. Nonepileptic seizure
2
@THE STUDY VAULT
,CORRECT ANSWER
C
Rationale: An epileptic seizure, which persists for greater than 90 minutes despite
administration of anticonvulsants is called a refractory seizure. An epileptic seizure
indicates the presence of EEG wave changes during the seizure activity. Epilepsy refers to
repetitive seizures without a reversible cause such as hyponatremia. Nonepileptic seizure
is the presence of seizure activity without the EEG changes.
Question 5
Which of the following would be the best technique to use to assess for cerebrospinal fluid
in bloody drainage from the nose following a traumatic brain injury?
A. Glucose test
B. Halo test
C. Send to lab for hemoglobin level
D. Litmus test
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Halo test (a positive result produces a yellow ring) is more accurate than a
glucose test, especially with the presence of bloody drainage. A glucose test has been
used to distinguish between sinus drainage and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) because CSF has
glucose but sinus drainage does not. But in this scenario, the drainage was "bloody," and
blood has glucose. Bloody drainage may give a false positive with a glucose test. Testing
for hemoglobin in the drainage does not determine the presence of CSF. Litmus test is
used to test a pH of a fluid and is not used to distinguish CSF from nasal drainage.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most common cause of an embolic stroke?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Atrial fibrillation
3
@THE STUDY VAULT
, C. Calcified lesion
D. Angioplasty
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common cause of an embolic stroke. Atrial
septic defect (ASD) and calcified lesions can also result in embolic strokes but are
significantly less common than AF. A complication of angioplasty can be distal
embolization but again is not the most common cause of an embolic stroke.
Question 7
Cranial nerve (CN) VII (facial nerve) is commonly involved with Bell's palsy. Where does
this CN originate?
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Midbrain
D. Basal ganglia
CORRECT ANSWER
A
Rationale: Cranial nerve (CN) V (trigeminal nerve), VI (abducens nerve), VII (facial nerve),
and VIII (acoustic nerve) originate from the pons. CNs IX (hypoglossal nerve), X (vagus), XI
(spinal accessory nerve), and XII (hypoglossal nerve) originate from medulla. CNs III
(oculomotor nerve) and IV (glossopharyngeal nerve) originate from the midbrain. No
cranial nerves originate from the basal ganglia.
Question 8
Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is LESS likely to result in a seizure?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
4
@THE STUDY VAULT
VERIFIED ANSWERS|BRAND NEW 2026-2027
UPDATE|GRADED A+
Question 1
Which of the following tumor types will have a higher incidence in pediatric populations
and have a decreased incidence with age?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
C. Central nervous system lymphoma
D. Metastatic brain tumor
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Both pilocytic astrocytoma and medulloblastoma brain tumors are more
commonly found in the younger population. The incidence of these tumors will decrease
with age. Glioblastomas are more frequently found in young adults. CNS lymphoma and
metastasis will have an increased incidence with age.
Question 2
A patient presents with progressive neurological deficits and has a recent history of
transient neurological attack. This patient is most likely experiencing which of the
following types of stroke?
A. Thrombotic stroke
B. Embolic stroke
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Vasospasms
CORRECT ANSWER
A
1
@THE STUDY VAULT
, Rationale: Thrombotic strokes frequently present as a worsening neurological status over
a short period of time. Patients may have experienced episodes of transient ischemic
attacks (TIAs) before the onset of the ischemic strokes. Embolic strokes tend to have a
more sudden onset without progression in symptoms. Subarachnoid hemorrhages (SAHs)
are a sudden onset of headache without the history of transient neurological deficits.
Vasospasms are associated with SAH, and symptoms occur most commonly between 7
and 10 days after the SAH.
Question 3
Which of the following best describes a coup injury?
A. Injury occurs at the point of impact.
B. Injury occurs on the contralateral side of impact.
C. It is an acceleration injury.
D. It is a deceleration injury.
CORRECT ANSWER
A
Rationale: A coup injury occurs at the point of impact, and a contracoup injury occurs on
the contralateral side. The mechanism of injury for acceleration injuries is commonly
defined as a moving object hitting a stationary head, whereas a deceleration injury
involves a moving head hitting a stationary object.
Question 4
A patient is admitted to the ICU with persistent epileptic seizures lasting beyond 90
minutes. Which of the following best describes the seizure activity?
A. Epileptic seizure
B. Epilepsy
C. Refractory seizure
D. Nonepileptic seizure
2
@THE STUDY VAULT
,CORRECT ANSWER
C
Rationale: An epileptic seizure, which persists for greater than 90 minutes despite
administration of anticonvulsants is called a refractory seizure. An epileptic seizure
indicates the presence of EEG wave changes during the seizure activity. Epilepsy refers to
repetitive seizures without a reversible cause such as hyponatremia. Nonepileptic seizure
is the presence of seizure activity without the EEG changes.
Question 5
Which of the following would be the best technique to use to assess for cerebrospinal fluid
in bloody drainage from the nose following a traumatic brain injury?
A. Glucose test
B. Halo test
C. Send to lab for hemoglobin level
D. Litmus test
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Halo test (a positive result produces a yellow ring) is more accurate than a
glucose test, especially with the presence of bloody drainage. A glucose test has been
used to distinguish between sinus drainage and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) because CSF has
glucose but sinus drainage does not. But in this scenario, the drainage was "bloody," and
blood has glucose. Bloody drainage may give a false positive with a glucose test. Testing
for hemoglobin in the drainage does not determine the presence of CSF. Litmus test is
used to test a pH of a fluid and is not used to distinguish CSF from nasal drainage.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most common cause of an embolic stroke?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Atrial fibrillation
3
@THE STUDY VAULT
, C. Calcified lesion
D. Angioplasty
CORRECT ANSWER
B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common cause of an embolic stroke. Atrial
septic defect (ASD) and calcified lesions can also result in embolic strokes but are
significantly less common than AF. A complication of angioplasty can be distal
embolization but again is not the most common cause of an embolic stroke.
Question 7
Cranial nerve (CN) VII (facial nerve) is commonly involved with Bell's palsy. Where does
this CN originate?
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Midbrain
D. Basal ganglia
CORRECT ANSWER
A
Rationale: Cranial nerve (CN) V (trigeminal nerve), VI (abducens nerve), VII (facial nerve),
and VIII (acoustic nerve) originate from the pons. CNs IX (hypoglossal nerve), X (vagus), XI
(spinal accessory nerve), and XII (hypoglossal nerve) originate from medulla. CNs III
(oculomotor nerve) and IV (glossopharyngeal nerve) originate from the midbrain. No
cranial nerves originate from the basal ganglia.
Question 8
Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is LESS likely to result in a seizure?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
4
@THE STUDY VAULT
