, NR 566 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY CARE OF THE FAMILY WEEK 7 & 8
COMPHREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 2026 | 2027 VERIFIED QUESTIONS |
| JUST RELEASED .
SECTION 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections (Questions 1–10)
Question 1: A 68-year-old man with primary open-angle glaucoma is started on latanoprost
ophthalmic drops. Which finding should the prescriber include as a common, non-dangerous
long-term effect of this medication?
A. Permanent clouding of the cornea
B. Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
C. Progressive constriction of the visual field
D. Accelerated formation of cataracts
CorreCt Answer: B. Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
rAtionAle: Prostaglandin analogs such as latanoprost lower intraocular pressure by
increasing aqueous humor outflow and often cause gradual darkening of the iris and eyelid; this
cosmetic change is common but not harmful .
Question 2: A patient with COPD and primary open-angle glaucoma needs an ophthalmic β-
blocker. Which agent is the safest choice?
A. Timolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Latanoprost
D. Brimonidine
CorreCt Answer: B. Betaxolol
rAtionAle: Betaxolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker, making it safer for patients with COPD
than non-selective β-blockers like timolol, which can cause bronchospasm. Latanoprost is a
prostaglandin analog, and brimonidine is an α2-agonist .
Question 3: A 5-year-old child with acute otitis externa and a perforated tympanic membrane
needs treatment. Which otic regimen is most appropriate?
A. Neomycin/polymyxin B/hydrocortisone drops
B. Ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution
, C. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone otic suspension
D. Acetic acid otic solution
CorreCt Answer: B. Ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution
rAtionAle: Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone otic solution that is safe for use when the tympanic
membrane is perforated. Neomycin is ototoxic and contraindicated with perforation.
Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone may be used but ofloxacin is preferred for its safety profile .
Question 4: A patient on warfarin requires antibiotic therapy for a urinary tract infection. Which
antibiotic class poses the greatest risk of potentiating warfarin's anticoagulant effect through
CYP2C9 inhibition and disruption of gut flora?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Penicillins
CorreCt Answer: B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
rAtionAle: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits CYP2C9 and reduces gut flora vitamin K
synthesis, significantly increasing INR. Fluoroquinolones have less CYP2C9 interaction;
nitrofurantoin and penicillins are less likely to cause major potentiation .
Question 5: Which medication is listed as an effective alternative to hormone therapy for
osteoporosis prevention?
A. Raloxifene
B. Methimazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Rasagiline
CorreCt Answer: A. Raloxifene
rAtionAle: Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) specifically listed
as an effective alternative to hormone therapy for reducing postmenopausal bone loss and
fracture risk .
Question 6: A patient on a progestin-only OC takes today's pill 5 hours late. What is the MOST
appropriate action?
A. Discard the pill and restart next week
B. Take it as soon as remembered and use backup contraception for at least 2 days
C. Double the dose daily for the rest of the pack
D. Skip the missed pill and continue with the next scheduled dose
COMPHREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 2026 | 2027 VERIFIED QUESTIONS |
| JUST RELEASED .
SECTION 1: Pharmacotherapy for Fungal and Viral Infections (Questions 1–10)
Question 1: A 68-year-old man with primary open-angle glaucoma is started on latanoprost
ophthalmic drops. Which finding should the prescriber include as a common, non-dangerous
long-term effect of this medication?
A. Permanent clouding of the cornea
B. Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
C. Progressive constriction of the visual field
D. Accelerated formation of cataracts
CorreCt Answer: B. Heightened brown pigmentation of the iris
rAtionAle: Prostaglandin analogs such as latanoprost lower intraocular pressure by
increasing aqueous humor outflow and often cause gradual darkening of the iris and eyelid; this
cosmetic change is common but not harmful .
Question 2: A patient with COPD and primary open-angle glaucoma needs an ophthalmic β-
blocker. Which agent is the safest choice?
A. Timolol
B. Betaxolol
C. Latanoprost
D. Brimonidine
CorreCt Answer: B. Betaxolol
rAtionAle: Betaxolol is a cardioselective β1-blocker, making it safer for patients with COPD
than non-selective β-blockers like timolol, which can cause bronchospasm. Latanoprost is a
prostaglandin analog, and brimonidine is an α2-agonist .
Question 3: A 5-year-old child with acute otitis externa and a perforated tympanic membrane
needs treatment. Which otic regimen is most appropriate?
A. Neomycin/polymyxin B/hydrocortisone drops
B. Ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution
, C. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone otic suspension
D. Acetic acid otic solution
CorreCt Answer: B. Ofloxacin 0.3% otic solution
rAtionAle: Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone otic solution that is safe for use when the tympanic
membrane is perforated. Neomycin is ototoxic and contraindicated with perforation.
Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone may be used but ofloxacin is preferred for its safety profile .
Question 4: A patient on warfarin requires antibiotic therapy for a urinary tract infection. Which
antibiotic class poses the greatest risk of potentiating warfarin's anticoagulant effect through
CYP2C9 inhibition and disruption of gut flora?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Penicillins
CorreCt Answer: B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
rAtionAle: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits CYP2C9 and reduces gut flora vitamin K
synthesis, significantly increasing INR. Fluoroquinolones have less CYP2C9 interaction;
nitrofurantoin and penicillins are less likely to cause major potentiation .
Question 5: Which medication is listed as an effective alternative to hormone therapy for
osteoporosis prevention?
A. Raloxifene
B. Methimazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Rasagiline
CorreCt Answer: A. Raloxifene
rAtionAle: Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) specifically listed
as an effective alternative to hormone therapy for reducing postmenopausal bone loss and
fracture risk .
Question 6: A patient on a progestin-only OC takes today's pill 5 hours late. What is the MOST
appropriate action?
A. Discard the pill and restart next week
B. Take it as soon as remembered and use backup contraception for at least 2 days
C. Double the dose daily for the rest of the pack
D. Skip the missed pill and continue with the next scheduled dose
