A+ VERIFIED
ADVANCED TRAUMA LIFE SUPPORT · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
ATLS 10th Edition Post Test Actual Questions with
Verified Answers (2026/2027), 100% Guarantee Score Pass — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers 10th Edition
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Primary & Secondary Survey
02 Airway & Ventilatory Management
03 Shock & Resuscitation
04 Thoracic & Abdominal Trauma
05 Head, Spine & Musculoskeletal Trauma
06 Special Populations, Burns & Transfer
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in advanced trauma life support — from the primary and secondary survey and airway management to shock, thoracic and
abdominal trauma, head and spinal injury, musculoskeletal trauma, burns, special populations, and transfer of care. This assessment targets
application and analysis skills required for the ATLS 10th Edition Post Test, with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (ATLS) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
,SECTION 1: Primary & Secondary Survey
Q1. A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed collision. He is combative, has a strong radial pulse,
and is making snoring sounds. The trauma team leader begins the primary survey. Which action takes absolute priority at this
moment?
A. Open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver while maintaining cervical spine protection
B. Insert two large-bore intravenous catheters and begin fluid resuscitation
C. Obtain a complete set of vital signs including blood pressure
D. Perform a rapid full-body exposure to identify all injuries
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In the ATLS primary survey the sequence is ABCDE. Airway with simultaneous cervical spine protection is the first priority. A combative
patient with snoring indicates potential airway obstruction that must be addressed immediately before circulation or full exposure.
Q2. During the primary survey of a 45-year-old pedestrian struck by a car, the team notes clear fluid leaking from the patient's nose
and a GCS of 9. Which finding should most strongly influence the decision for definitive airway management?
A. Nasal packing should be performed first to control the cerebrospinal fluid leak
B. Intubation should be delayed until a CT scan confirms the presence of a basilar skull fracture
C. The presence of clear rhinorrhea alone is an absolute indication for immediate intubation
D. A GCS of 9 or less is a standard indication for definitive airway protection in trauma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
ATLS guidelines indicate that a GCS of 8 or less requires definitive airway management; many centers use a threshold of 9 or less when
other factors are present. Clear rhinorrhea suggests possible basilar skull fracture but does not by itself mandate immediate intubation; the
depressed consciousness does.
Q3. A trauma patient has completed the primary survey and is now undergoing the secondary survey. The examiner is performing
a head-to-toe evaluation. Which component is specifically part of the secondary survey rather than the primary survey?
A. Assessment of airway patency and breath sounds
B. Evaluation of circulatory status and control of external hemorrhage
C. Detailed neurologic examination including cranial nerves and motor/sensory testing of all extremities
D. Log-roll to inspect the back and maintain spinal precautions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The primary survey focuses on life-threatening ABCs and a brief disability assessment (GCS, pupils). A detailed neurologic examination of
cranial nerves and full motor/sensory testing is performed during the secondary survey once immediate threats are addressed.
Q4. A 32-year-old woman arrives after a fall from a second-story window. Her blood pressure is 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate 128, and
she has a large expanding hematoma in the left thigh. The primary survey is otherwise complete. What is the most appropriate
next management step for the hemorrhage?
A. Perform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage to determine the source of bleeding
B. Apply direct pressure or a tourniquet proximal to the hematoma and prepare for immediate hemorrhage control in the operating
room or interventional radiology
C. Continue crystalloid resuscitation until the blood pressure normalizes before any intervention
D. Apply a pelvic binder and obtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
External or compressible hemorrhage from an extremity is controlled immediately with direct pressure or tourniquet. An expanding thigh
hematoma suggests major vascular injury requiring surgical or endovascular control; delaying for imaging or pure crystalloid resuscitation is
inappropriate in the hypotensive patient.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q5. While performing the AMPLE history during the secondary survey, a nurse obtains information from a family member. Which
element is most critical to communicate to the trauma surgeon before operative intervention?
A. Known medication allergies and last meal time
B. Whether the patient has a living will on file at home
C. The patient's favorite recreational activities
D. The exact make and model of the vehicle involved
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AMPLE stands for Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, and Events. Allergies and last oral intake directly affect anesthetic
and surgical risk and must be known before operative intervention.
Q6. A patient involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision is found to have a seat-belt sign across the abdomen. The primary
survey is normal and the patient is hemodynamically stable. Which statement best guides further evaluation?
A. Only patients with peritonitis on examination require further evaluation of a seat-belt sign
B. Immediate laparotomy is mandatory for any patient with a seat-belt sign
C. The presence of a seat-belt sign increases the likelihood of intra-abdominal injury and warrants careful abdominal examination
and imaging even if the patient is currently stable
D. A seat-belt sign is a purely cosmetic finding and requires no additional imaging
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A seat-belt sign is associated with increased risk of hollow-viscus and mesenteric injury. Even in a currently stable patient it prompts thorough
evaluation, typically with CT imaging, rather than observation alone or immediate laparotomy without confirmation.
Q7. During the primary survey the team leader calls for a log-roll. Which statement correctly describes the purpose and technique
of the log-roll in ATLS?
A. Only the trauma surgeon is permitted to perform the log-roll examination
B. The log-roll is performed solely to place the patient on a long spine board and is not used for examination
C. The log-roll allows inspection and palpation of the posterior torso while maintaining spinal alignment with coordinated team
movement
D. The log-roll can be omitted if the patient has no back pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The log-roll is an integral part of the primary or early secondary survey that permits examination of the back while the spine is kept in neutral
alignment by a coordinated team. It is not omitted based on the absence of pain, nor is it limited to a single provider.
Q8. A 55-year-old man is brought in after a fall down stairs. He opens his eyes only to pain, utters incomprehensible sounds, and
withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale score, and how does this score influence airway
management?
A. GCS 6; immediate cricothyroidotomy is required
B. GCS 8; definitive airway management is indicated
C. GCS 9; airway observation is sufficient because the score is above 8
D. GCS 11; the patient can protect his own airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Eye 2 + Verbal 2 + Motor 4 = GCS 8. A score of 8 or less is a clear indication for definitive airway protection because the patient cannot
reliably protect the airway or maintain adequate ventilation.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
ADVANCED TRAUMA LIFE SUPPORT · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
ATLS 10th Edition Post Test Actual Questions with
Verified Answers (2026/2027), 100% Guarantee Score Pass — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers 10th Edition
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Primary & Secondary Survey
02 Airway & Ventilatory Management
03 Shock & Resuscitation
04 Thoracic & Abdominal Trauma
05 Head, Spine & Musculoskeletal Trauma
06 Special Populations, Burns & Transfer
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in advanced trauma life support — from the primary and secondary survey and airway management to shock, thoracic and
abdominal trauma, head and spinal injury, musculoskeletal trauma, burns, special populations, and transfer of care. This assessment targets
application and analysis skills required for the ATLS 10th Edition Post Test, with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (ATLS) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
,SECTION 1: Primary & Secondary Survey
Q1. A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the trauma bay after a high-speed collision. He is combative, has a strong radial pulse,
and is making snoring sounds. The trauma team leader begins the primary survey. Which action takes absolute priority at this
moment?
A. Open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver while maintaining cervical spine protection
B. Insert two large-bore intravenous catheters and begin fluid resuscitation
C. Obtain a complete set of vital signs including blood pressure
D. Perform a rapid full-body exposure to identify all injuries
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
In the ATLS primary survey the sequence is ABCDE. Airway with simultaneous cervical spine protection is the first priority. A combative
patient with snoring indicates potential airway obstruction that must be addressed immediately before circulation or full exposure.
Q2. During the primary survey of a 45-year-old pedestrian struck by a car, the team notes clear fluid leaking from the patient's nose
and a GCS of 9. Which finding should most strongly influence the decision for definitive airway management?
A. Nasal packing should be performed first to control the cerebrospinal fluid leak
B. Intubation should be delayed until a CT scan confirms the presence of a basilar skull fracture
C. The presence of clear rhinorrhea alone is an absolute indication for immediate intubation
D. A GCS of 9 or less is a standard indication for definitive airway protection in trauma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
ATLS guidelines indicate that a GCS of 8 or less requires definitive airway management; many centers use a threshold of 9 or less when
other factors are present. Clear rhinorrhea suggests possible basilar skull fracture but does not by itself mandate immediate intubation; the
depressed consciousness does.
Q3. A trauma patient has completed the primary survey and is now undergoing the secondary survey. The examiner is performing
a head-to-toe evaluation. Which component is specifically part of the secondary survey rather than the primary survey?
A. Assessment of airway patency and breath sounds
B. Evaluation of circulatory status and control of external hemorrhage
C. Detailed neurologic examination including cranial nerves and motor/sensory testing of all extremities
D. Log-roll to inspect the back and maintain spinal precautions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The primary survey focuses on life-threatening ABCs and a brief disability assessment (GCS, pupils). A detailed neurologic examination of
cranial nerves and full motor/sensory testing is performed during the secondary survey once immediate threats are addressed.
Q4. A 32-year-old woman arrives after a fall from a second-story window. Her blood pressure is 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate 128, and
she has a large expanding hematoma in the left thigh. The primary survey is otherwise complete. What is the most appropriate
next management step for the hemorrhage?
A. Perform a diagnostic peritoneal lavage to determine the source of bleeding
B. Apply direct pressure or a tourniquet proximal to the hematoma and prepare for immediate hemorrhage control in the operating
room or interventional radiology
C. Continue crystalloid resuscitation until the blood pressure normalizes before any intervention
D. Apply a pelvic binder and obtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
External or compressible hemorrhage from an extremity is controlled immediately with direct pressure or tourniquet. An expanding thigh
hematoma suggests major vascular injury requiring surgical or endovascular control; delaying for imaging or pure crystalloid resuscitation is
inappropriate in the hypotensive patient.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q5. While performing the AMPLE history during the secondary survey, a nurse obtains information from a family member. Which
element is most critical to communicate to the trauma surgeon before operative intervention?
A. Known medication allergies and last meal time
B. Whether the patient has a living will on file at home
C. The patient's favorite recreational activities
D. The exact make and model of the vehicle involved
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
AMPLE stands for Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, and Events. Allergies and last oral intake directly affect anesthetic
and surgical risk and must be known before operative intervention.
Q6. A patient involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision is found to have a seat-belt sign across the abdomen. The primary
survey is normal and the patient is hemodynamically stable. Which statement best guides further evaluation?
A. Only patients with peritonitis on examination require further evaluation of a seat-belt sign
B. Immediate laparotomy is mandatory for any patient with a seat-belt sign
C. The presence of a seat-belt sign increases the likelihood of intra-abdominal injury and warrants careful abdominal examination
and imaging even if the patient is currently stable
D. A seat-belt sign is a purely cosmetic finding and requires no additional imaging
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A seat-belt sign is associated with increased risk of hollow-viscus and mesenteric injury. Even in a currently stable patient it prompts thorough
evaluation, typically with CT imaging, rather than observation alone or immediate laparotomy without confirmation.
Q7. During the primary survey the team leader calls for a log-roll. Which statement correctly describes the purpose and technique
of the log-roll in ATLS?
A. Only the trauma surgeon is permitted to perform the log-roll examination
B. The log-roll is performed solely to place the patient on a long spine board and is not used for examination
C. The log-roll allows inspection and palpation of the posterior torso while maintaining spinal alignment with coordinated team
movement
D. The log-roll can be omitted if the patient has no back pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The log-roll is an integral part of the primary or early secondary survey that permits examination of the back while the spine is kept in neutral
alignment by a coordinated team. It is not omitted based on the absence of pain, nor is it limited to a single provider.
Q8. A 55-year-old man is brought in after a fall down stairs. He opens his eyes only to pain, utters incomprehensible sounds, and
withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale score, and how does this score influence airway
management?
A. GCS 6; immediate cricothyroidotomy is required
B. GCS 8; definitive airway management is indicated
C. GCS 9; airway observation is sufficient because the score is above 8
D. GCS 11; the patient can protect his own airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Eye 2 + Verbal 2 + Motor 4 = GCS 8. A score of 8 or less is a clear indication for definitive airway protection because the patient cannot
reliably protect the airway or maintain adequate ventilation.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
