A+ VERIFIED
MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NU 170 Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing | Galen College |
High-Yield Qs & Rationales 2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
02 Intrapartum & Labor Management
03 Postpartum Care & Complications
04 Newborn Assessment & Transition
05 Pediatric Growth, Development & Family Care
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal-child nursing — from antepartum, intrapartum,
and postpartum care to newborn assessment, pediatric growth and
development, and family-centered nursing interventions. This assessment
targets application and analysis skills required for NU 170 Exam 1,
with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (Upper-Division Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q1. A 29-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks reports sudden severe headache, blurred vision, and right-upper-quadrant pain. BP is 172/114 mmHg
and urine shows 3+ protein. The nurse recognizes the priority diagnosis and prepares for which intervention?
A. Hospitalization for severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis
B. Outpatient observation for mild gestational hypertension
C. Immediate induction without further assessment of end-organ involvement
D. Oral antihypertensives only and discharge with weekly follow-up
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Severe-range BP plus neurologic and hepatic symptoms define severe preeclampsia; magnesium sulfate and inpatient monitoring are required. Mild hypertension lacks
these features and is managed differently.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks with gestational diabetes has a 2-hour postprandial glucose of 168 mg/dL. The nurse determines that which
teaching requires reinforcement?
A. Only fasting glucose values need to be reported to the provider
B. Occasional readings above 160 mg/dL require no regimen change
C. Postprandial targets are typically kept below 120–140 mg/dL to reduce fetal risk
D. Insulin is never indicated if diet is attempted first
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Persistent postprandial elevations increase macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia risk; targets are usually <120–140 mg/dL. Fasting values alone are insufficient for
management decisions.
Q3. A multipara at 36 weeks presents with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms complete placenta previa. Which activity
restriction is essential?
A. Maintain strict pelvic rest and avoid digital vaginal examinations
B. Continue moderate exercise and intercourse as tolerated
C. Perform daily self-checks of cervical dilation at home
D. Increase ambulation to encourage placental migration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Complete previa requires pelvic rest to prevent life-threatening hemorrhage. Digital exams and intercourse are contraindicated; activity does not promote migration once
previa is complete.
Q4. A client at 31 weeks reports no fetal movement for 10 hours. After a focused kick-count the nurse notes only two movements in 60
minutes. The next action is to:
A. Reassure the client that fetal sleep cycles explain the finding
B. Schedule a routine appointment for the following week
C. Instruct the client to drink caffeine and recheck in 4 hours only
D. Notify the provider for further fetal-well-being evaluation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Fewer than three movements in one hour is an abnormal kick count requiring prompt assessment of fetal status. Simple reassurance or delayed follow-up is inappropriate.
Q5. A Rh-negative primigravida at 28 weeks receives Rho(D) immune globulin. The nurse explains that the injection is given to:
A. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes
B. Treat existing anti-D antibodies already present in maternal serum
C. Create active long-term immunity against future Rh-positive fetuses
D. Replace clotting factors depleted during pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
RhoGAM provides passive anti-D that clears fetal cells before the mother mounts an immune response, preventing sensitization. It does not treat existing antibodies or
produce active immunity.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q6. A client with chronic hypertension is prescribed labetalol. The most important self-monitoring instruction is to:
A. Record daily blood pressures and report readings ≥160/110 mmHg promptly
B. Stop the medication if mild dizziness occurs after the first dose
C. Take the drug only when a headache is present
D. Limit total daily fluid intake to less than one liter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Home BP monitoring with clear reporting thresholds enables early detection of superimposed preeclampsia. Medication should not be stopped without provider guidance;
fluid restriction is not indicated.
Q7. A client at 27 weeks in preterm labor receives betamethasone. The primary purpose of this medication is to:
A. Immediately abolish all uterine contractions
B. Accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce neonatal RDS risk
C. Treat maternal infection associated with membrane rupture
D. Lower maternal blood pressure in the setting of hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Antenatal corticosteroids promote surfactant production and decrease the incidence and severity of respiratory distress syndrome. Tocolytics, not steroids, inhibit
contractions.
Q8. A 24-year-old at 18 weeks is diagnosed with cervical insufficiency after painless dilation. The intervention most likely to be offered is:
A. Immediate induction of labor to empty the uterus
B. High-dose oxytocin to increase uterine tone
C. Placement of a cervical cerclage to reinforce the cervix
D. Weekly digital cervical examinations at home
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Cerclage is the standard surgical reinforcement for cervical insufficiency diagnosed in the second trimester. Induction or frequent digital exams would risk further loss.
Q9. A client at 23 weeks has intractable vomiting, 9-lb weight loss, ketonuria, and elevated liver enzymes. These findings are most consistent
with:
A. Normal second-trimester nausea that requires no intervention
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum needing fluid and electrolyte replacement
C. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy that occurs only after 30 weeks
D. Physiologic anorexia of mid-pregnancy without metabolic consequence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hyperemesis produces significant weight loss, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and ketonuria, often with mild hepatic enzyme elevation. Ordinary nausea does not cause
this degree of metabolic derangement.
Q10. A client at 34 weeks develops dark-red bleeding, a rigid tender uterus, and late decelerations. The priority nursing action is to:
A. Encourage ambulation to promote placental separation
B. Administer oral tocolytics to relax the hypertonic uterus
C. Perform a digital vaginal examination to assess dilation
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean delivery and continuous fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Placental abruption with maternal-fetal compromise is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery, usually by cesarean. Ambulation, tocolysis, and digital exam are
contraindicated.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q11. A nonstress test at 36 weeks shows two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within 20 minutes. The nurse interprets the result
as:
A. Nonreactive, requiring immediate biophysical profile
B. Equivocal, needing prolonged monitoring for another hour
C. Abnormal and consistent with chronic uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Reactive, indicating adequate fetal oxygenation at the time of testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A reactive NST demonstrates at least two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute window and is considered reassuring. Nonreactive results prompt further evaluation.
Q12. A pregnant adolescent has a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL. The nurse prioritizes teaching about iron supplementation and which dietary
practice?
A. Consume iron-rich foods with vitamin-C sources to enhance absorption
B. Take iron tablets with milk to reduce gastric irritation
C. Avoid all meat products to prevent excess iron intake
D. Limit fluid intake while taking iron to concentrate the dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Vitamin C markedly improves non-heme iron absorption. Calcium-containing beverages inhibit absorption; fluid restriction is unnecessary and potentially harmful.
Q13. A client at 30 weeks with PPROM is admitted. Which nursing measure is essential to reduce infection risk?
A. Limit assessment to sterile speculum exams and avoid digital vaginal examinations
B. Encourage frequent tub baths to maintain perineal hygiene
C. Initiate continuous oxytocin to expedite delivery regardless of gestational age
D. Allow unrestricted ambulation outside the unit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Digital vaginal examinations increase ascending infection risk after membrane rupture; assessment is restricted to sterile speculum exams. Tub baths and unrestricted
activity are contraindicated.
Q14. A multipara at 38 weeks has a fundal height of 43 cm and is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The nurse anticipates increased risk for
which postpartum complication?
A. Prolonged latent-phase labor due to inadequate contractions
B. Fetal growth restriction secondary to oligohydramnios
C. Maternal hypotension solely from aortocaval compression
D. Uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage after delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Uterine overdistention by excess amniotic fluid predisposes to atony and hemorrhage. Polyhydramnios is associated with preterm labor and malpresentation rather than
growth restriction.
Q15. A client with suspected HELLP syndrome has hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and platelets of 68,000/µL. While preparing for
delivery the nurse’s priority is to monitor for:
A. Hepatic rupture and coagulopathic bleeding
B. Immediate need for oral iron supplementation
C. Hyperglycemia requiring continuous insulin infusion
D. Rapid resolution of thrombocytopenia without intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
HELLP carries risk of hepatic hematoma/rupture and severe coagulopathy; close surveillance for RUQ pain, falling hematocrit, and bleeding is critical.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NU 170 Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing | Galen College |
High-Yield Qs & Rationales 2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
02 Intrapartum & Labor Management
03 Postpartum Care & Complications
04 Newborn Assessment & Transition
05 Pediatric Growth, Development & Family Care
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in maternal-child nursing — from antepartum, intrapartum,
and postpartum care to newborn assessment, pediatric growth and
development, and family-centered nursing interventions. This assessment
targets application and analysis skills required for NU 170 Exam 1,
with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (Upper-Division Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q1. A 29-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks reports sudden severe headache, blurred vision, and right-upper-quadrant pain. BP is 172/114 mmHg
and urine shows 3+ protein. The nurse recognizes the priority diagnosis and prepares for which intervention?
A. Hospitalization for severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis
B. Outpatient observation for mild gestational hypertension
C. Immediate induction without further assessment of end-organ involvement
D. Oral antihypertensives only and discharge with weekly follow-up
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Severe-range BP plus neurologic and hepatic symptoms define severe preeclampsia; magnesium sulfate and inpatient monitoring are required. Mild hypertension lacks
these features and is managed differently.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks with gestational diabetes has a 2-hour postprandial glucose of 168 mg/dL. The nurse determines that which
teaching requires reinforcement?
A. Only fasting glucose values need to be reported to the provider
B. Occasional readings above 160 mg/dL require no regimen change
C. Postprandial targets are typically kept below 120–140 mg/dL to reduce fetal risk
D. Insulin is never indicated if diet is attempted first
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Persistent postprandial elevations increase macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia risk; targets are usually <120–140 mg/dL. Fasting values alone are insufficient for
management decisions.
Q3. A multipara at 36 weeks presents with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms complete placenta previa. Which activity
restriction is essential?
A. Maintain strict pelvic rest and avoid digital vaginal examinations
B. Continue moderate exercise and intercourse as tolerated
C. Perform daily self-checks of cervical dilation at home
D. Increase ambulation to encourage placental migration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Complete previa requires pelvic rest to prevent life-threatening hemorrhage. Digital exams and intercourse are contraindicated; activity does not promote migration once
previa is complete.
Q4. A client at 31 weeks reports no fetal movement for 10 hours. After a focused kick-count the nurse notes only two movements in 60
minutes. The next action is to:
A. Reassure the client that fetal sleep cycles explain the finding
B. Schedule a routine appointment for the following week
C. Instruct the client to drink caffeine and recheck in 4 hours only
D. Notify the provider for further fetal-well-being evaluation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Fewer than three movements in one hour is an abnormal kick count requiring prompt assessment of fetal status. Simple reassurance or delayed follow-up is inappropriate.
Q5. A Rh-negative primigravida at 28 weeks receives Rho(D) immune globulin. The nurse explains that the injection is given to:
A. Prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal erythrocytes
B. Treat existing anti-D antibodies already present in maternal serum
C. Create active long-term immunity against future Rh-positive fetuses
D. Replace clotting factors depleted during pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
RhoGAM provides passive anti-D that clears fetal cells before the mother mounts an immune response, preventing sensitization. It does not treat existing antibodies or
produce active immunity.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q6. A client with chronic hypertension is prescribed labetalol. The most important self-monitoring instruction is to:
A. Record daily blood pressures and report readings ≥160/110 mmHg promptly
B. Stop the medication if mild dizziness occurs after the first dose
C. Take the drug only when a headache is present
D. Limit total daily fluid intake to less than one liter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Home BP monitoring with clear reporting thresholds enables early detection of superimposed preeclampsia. Medication should not be stopped without provider guidance;
fluid restriction is not indicated.
Q7. A client at 27 weeks in preterm labor receives betamethasone. The primary purpose of this medication is to:
A. Immediately abolish all uterine contractions
B. Accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce neonatal RDS risk
C. Treat maternal infection associated with membrane rupture
D. Lower maternal blood pressure in the setting of hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Antenatal corticosteroids promote surfactant production and decrease the incidence and severity of respiratory distress syndrome. Tocolytics, not steroids, inhibit
contractions.
Q8. A 24-year-old at 18 weeks is diagnosed with cervical insufficiency after painless dilation. The intervention most likely to be offered is:
A. Immediate induction of labor to empty the uterus
B. High-dose oxytocin to increase uterine tone
C. Placement of a cervical cerclage to reinforce the cervix
D. Weekly digital cervical examinations at home
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Cerclage is the standard surgical reinforcement for cervical insufficiency diagnosed in the second trimester. Induction or frequent digital exams would risk further loss.
Q9. A client at 23 weeks has intractable vomiting, 9-lb weight loss, ketonuria, and elevated liver enzymes. These findings are most consistent
with:
A. Normal second-trimester nausea that requires no intervention
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum needing fluid and electrolyte replacement
C. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy that occurs only after 30 weeks
D. Physiologic anorexia of mid-pregnancy without metabolic consequence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hyperemesis produces significant weight loss, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and ketonuria, often with mild hepatic enzyme elevation. Ordinary nausea does not cause
this degree of metabolic derangement.
Q10. A client at 34 weeks develops dark-red bleeding, a rigid tender uterus, and late decelerations. The priority nursing action is to:
A. Encourage ambulation to promote placental separation
B. Administer oral tocolytics to relax the hypertonic uterus
C. Perform a digital vaginal examination to assess dilation
D. Prepare for emergency cesarean delivery and continuous fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Placental abruption with maternal-fetal compromise is an obstetric emergency requiring immediate delivery, usually by cesarean. Ambulation, tocolysis, and digital exam are
contraindicated.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Antepartum Care & High-Risk Pregnancy
Q11. A nonstress test at 36 weeks shows two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within 20 minutes. The nurse interprets the result
as:
A. Nonreactive, requiring immediate biophysical profile
B. Equivocal, needing prolonged monitoring for another hour
C. Abnormal and consistent with chronic uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Reactive, indicating adequate fetal oxygenation at the time of testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A reactive NST demonstrates at least two qualifying accelerations in a 20-minute window and is considered reassuring. Nonreactive results prompt further evaluation.
Q12. A pregnant adolescent has a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL. The nurse prioritizes teaching about iron supplementation and which dietary
practice?
A. Consume iron-rich foods with vitamin-C sources to enhance absorption
B. Take iron tablets with milk to reduce gastric irritation
C. Avoid all meat products to prevent excess iron intake
D. Limit fluid intake while taking iron to concentrate the dose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Vitamin C markedly improves non-heme iron absorption. Calcium-containing beverages inhibit absorption; fluid restriction is unnecessary and potentially harmful.
Q13. A client at 30 weeks with PPROM is admitted. Which nursing measure is essential to reduce infection risk?
A. Limit assessment to sterile speculum exams and avoid digital vaginal examinations
B. Encourage frequent tub baths to maintain perineal hygiene
C. Initiate continuous oxytocin to expedite delivery regardless of gestational age
D. Allow unrestricted ambulation outside the unit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Digital vaginal examinations increase ascending infection risk after membrane rupture; assessment is restricted to sterile speculum exams. Tub baths and unrestricted
activity are contraindicated.
Q14. A multipara at 38 weeks has a fundal height of 43 cm and is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The nurse anticipates increased risk for
which postpartum complication?
A. Prolonged latent-phase labor due to inadequate contractions
B. Fetal growth restriction secondary to oligohydramnios
C. Maternal hypotension solely from aortocaval compression
D. Uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage after delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Uterine overdistention by excess amniotic fluid predisposes to atony and hemorrhage. Polyhydramnios is associated with preterm labor and malpresentation rather than
growth restriction.
Q15. A client with suspected HELLP syndrome has hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and platelets of 68,000/µL. While preparing for
delivery the nurse’s priority is to monitor for:
A. Hepatic rupture and coagulopathic bleeding
B. Immediate need for oral iron supplementation
C. Hyperglycemia requiring continuous insulin infusion
D. Rapid resolution of thrombocytopenia without intervention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
HELLP carries risk of hepatic hematoma/rupture and severe coagulopathy; close surveillance for RUQ pain, falling hematocrit, and bleeding is critical.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
