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NUR 2755 MDC4 FINAL EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | DOWNLOAD AND PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027 – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS |

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NUR 2755 MDC4 FINAL EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | DOWNLOAD AND PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027 – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE NUR 2755 MDC4 FINAL EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | DOWNLOAD AND PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027 – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE

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NUR 2755 MDC4 FINAL EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL
DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | DOWNLOAD AND PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
2026/2027 – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE

CORE DOMAINS

Foundational Nursing Theory and Practice

Medical-Surgical Nursing and Complex Health Alterations

Pharmacology and Medication Safety

Regulatory and Legal Compliance in Nursing

Ethics and Professional Standards

Patient Safety and Quality Improvement

Critical Thinking and Clinical Decision-Making

Leadership and Management in Nursing

Community and Population Health

INTRODUCTION

This comprehensive final examination is designed to assess the mastery of advanced nursing
concepts and the application of professional judgment in complex clinical scenarios. The
assessment evaluates a candidate's proficiency in foundational theory, applied professional
knowledge, technical skills, and adherence to regulatory and ethical standards. The structure
consists of multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that emphasize real-world application,
critical thinking, and decision-making. This exam prepares the candidate to demonstrate the
competencies required for safe, effective, and professional nursing practice, ensuring readiness for
the diverse challenges encountered in modern healthcare environments.




SECTION ONE – QUESTIONS 1–100

Question 1
A nurse is assessing a patient who has just been admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure.
Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find?

,A. Hypertension and bradycardia
B. Jugular venous distention and crackles in the lungs
C. Decreased respiratory rate and dry mucous membranes
D. Peripheral edema and polyuria
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic congestion, manifesting as jugular
venous distention and peripheral edema, while left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary
congestion, leading to crackles in the lungs.

Question 2
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen
therapy. The nurse should implement which of the following oxygen delivery methods to
ensure safety?
A. High-flow nasal cannula at 15 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 10 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 2-4 L/min
D. Non-rebreather mask at 12 L/min
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Patients with COPD are at risk for oxygen-induced hypercapnia. A Venturi
mask allows for precise control of low-flow oxygen concentrations, typically between 24% and
40%, which is safer for this patient population.

Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient. Which of the following findings should
the nurse identify as a contraindication to administering the medication?
A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL
D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: Digoxin slows the heart rate. A heart rate below 60 beats per minute in an
adult is a common clinical threshold to withhold the medication and notify the provider, as it
can lead to symptomatic bradycardia or heart block.

Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following

,laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT). The therapeutic range is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.

Question 5
A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following arterial blood
gas (ABG) results should the nurse expect?
A. pH 7.50, PaCO2 30, HCO3 24
B. pH 7.30, PaCO2 35, HCO3 15
C. pH 7.45, PaCO2 45, HCO3 28
D. pH 7.25, PaCO2 50, HCO3 26
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: DKA is characterized by metabolic acidosis, which presents with a low pH
(<7.35), a low bicarbonate level (<22 mEq/L), and a compensatory low PaCO2 due to Kussmaul
respirations.

Question 6
A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following
statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will need to have my blood checked regularly."
B. "I should increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use an electric razor to shave."
D. "I will report any unusual bruising or bleeding."
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which is the antidote to warfarin.
Patients should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K rather than increasing it, as this can
decrease the effectiveness of the medication.

Question 7
A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which of the following findings is
most indicative of a perforated ulcer?

, A. Dull, gnawing pain in the epigastric area
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Sudden, severe, sharp abdominal pain
D. Heartburn relieved by antacids
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: A perforated peptic ulcer is a medical emergency. The hallmark sign is a
sudden onset of severe, sharp, and diffuse abdominal pain, often described as a "board-like"
abdomen due to peritoneal irritation.

Question 8
A patient is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss, leading to
hypokalemia. The nurse must monitor serum potassium levels closely to prevent complications
such as dysrhythmias.

Question 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Keep the head of the bed flat.
B. Cluster nursing care to provide rest periods.
C. Maintain the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
D. Hyperventilate the patient routinely.
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees promotes venous drainage from
the head, which helps to decrease intracranial pressure. Clustering care can increase ICP, and
routine hyperventilation is not recommended.

Question 10
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient who has a prescription for enoxaparin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

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