NUR 2502 / NUR2502 FINAL EXAM – EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is reviewing the components of a comprehensive health assessment for
an adult client. Which finding represents objective data?
A. The client reports feeling dizzy when standing. B. The client states that the pain is 7 out of 10.
C. The nurse measures a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. D. The client says, “I feel unusually
tired.”
Rationale: Objective data are measurable or observable findings obtained through assessment,
such as vital signs, physical findings, and laboratory results. The other options are subjective
reports from the client.
2. A hospitalized adult client suddenly becomes restless and has difficulty
concentrating. The client's oxygen saturation has decreased from 97% to 88%.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider. B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status. C.
Document the change in the electronic health record. D. Encourage the client to increase oral
fluid intake.
Rationale: Acute restlessness and confusion can be early manifestations of hypoxemia. The nurse
should immediately assess airway and breathing and intervene to support oxygenation before
completing documentation or addressing less urgent needs.
3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in an adult client receiving oxygen
therapy?
A. Respiratory rate of 18/min B. Oxygen saturation of 95% C. Mild nasal dryness D. New onset
of confusion and increasing somnolence
Rationale: New neurologic changes can indicate worsening hypoxemia or, in susceptible clients,
carbon dioxide retention. The change requires prompt assessment rather than being attributed
simply to fatigue.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is prescribed oxygen therapy.
Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen at the highest available flow rate. B. Discontinue oxygen if the client
becomes drowsy. C. Titrate oxygen according to the prescribed target and monitor
respiratory status. D. Restrict oxygen because supplemental oxygen is contraindicated in
COPD.
,Rationale: Clients with COPD may require carefully titrated oxygen therapy. Oxygen should not
be withheld, but excessive oxygen administration can contribute to worsening hypercapnia in
some susceptible clients.
5. A client with pneumonia has a respiratory rate of 30/min, oxygen saturation of
89%, and increasing work of breathing. Which nursing intervention has the
highest priority?
A. Offer oral fluids. B. Obtain a detailed dietary history. C. Encourage ambulation. D. Apply
prescribed supplemental oxygen and reassess respiratory status.
Rationale: The client's findings indicate impaired oxygenation and increased respiratory effort.
Supporting oxygenation is the immediate priority while additional diagnostic and therapeutic
interventions are initiated.
6. A nurse is teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer after surgery.
Which instruction is correct?
A. Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece. B. Use the device only when shortness of breath
occurs. C. Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece, then briefly hold the breath.
D. Breathe rapidly through the device for several minutes.
Rationale: Slow, sustained inspiration with a brief breath hold promotes alveolar expansion and
helps prevent postoperative atelectasis. The device is used regularly rather than only when
symptoms occur.
7. A client with asthma develops wheezing and increasing shortness of breath.
Which prescribed medication would the nurse expect to provide rapid
bronchodilation?
A. Fluticasone B. Montelukast C. Budesonide D. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist that produces rapid
bronchodilation and is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm. Inhaled
corticosteroids are controller medications rather than immediate rescue therapy.
8. A client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation is unable to speak in
complete sentences because of dyspnea. What does this finding indicate?
A. The client's asthma is adequately controlled. B. The client is experiencing only mild
bronchospasm. C. The client is ready for discharge. D. The client may have severe respiratory
compromise requiring immediate intervention.
Rationale: Inability to speak normally because of dyspnea is a significant indicator of severe
respiratory distress. The nurse should rapidly assess oxygenation, administer prescribed
emergency therapy, and escalate care as indicated.
, 9. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath when lying flat.
Which term describes this symptom?
A. Hemoptysis B. Bradypnea C. Orthopnea D. Pleurisy
Rationale: Orthopnea is difficulty breathing while lying flat and is commonly associated with
pulmonary congestion in heart failure. Hemoptysis refers to coughing blood, while bradypnea
refers to an abnormally slow respiratory rate.
10. During assessment of a client with left-sided heart failure, which finding would the
nurse expect?
A. Distended abdomen without respiratory symptoms B. Crackles at the lung bases C.
Unilateral calf pain D. Increased bowel sounds
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary vascular congestion, which may produce
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral and systemic manifestations are more
characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
11. A client with heart failure is prescribed daily weights. Which instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Weigh at different times each day to obtain an average. B. Weigh only when swelling
becomes noticeable. C. Use different scales to verify the measurement. D. Weigh at
approximately the same time each morning using the same scale.
Rationale: Consistent daily weights provide a reliable method for detecting fluid retention. A
rapid increase in weight can indicate worsening heart failure before severe edema becomes
obvious.
12. A client taking furosemide for heart failure is at increased risk for which
electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary excretion of potassium, sodium,
and water. Hypokalemia can cause weakness and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
13. A client with suspected myocardial infarction reports crushing substernal chest
pain radiating to the left arm. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to walk to reduce anxiety. B. Offer a large meal before medications are
administered. C. Delay assessment until the pain becomes severe. D. Rapidly assess the client
and initiate the prescribed acute coronary syndrome protocol.
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is reviewing the components of a comprehensive health assessment for
an adult client. Which finding represents objective data?
A. The client reports feeling dizzy when standing. B. The client states that the pain is 7 out of 10.
C. The nurse measures a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. D. The client says, “I feel unusually
tired.”
Rationale: Objective data are measurable or observable findings obtained through assessment,
such as vital signs, physical findings, and laboratory results. The other options are subjective
reports from the client.
2. A hospitalized adult client suddenly becomes restless and has difficulty
concentrating. The client's oxygen saturation has decreased from 97% to 88%.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider. B. Assess the client's airway and respiratory status. C.
Document the change in the electronic health record. D. Encourage the client to increase oral
fluid intake.
Rationale: Acute restlessness and confusion can be early manifestations of hypoxemia. The nurse
should immediately assess airway and breathing and intervene to support oxygenation before
completing documentation or addressing less urgent needs.
3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in an adult client receiving oxygen
therapy?
A. Respiratory rate of 18/min B. Oxygen saturation of 95% C. Mild nasal dryness D. New onset
of confusion and increasing somnolence
Rationale: New neurologic changes can indicate worsening hypoxemia or, in susceptible clients,
carbon dioxide retention. The change requires prompt assessment rather than being attributed
simply to fatigue.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is prescribed oxygen therapy.
Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Administer oxygen at the highest available flow rate. B. Discontinue oxygen if the client
becomes drowsy. C. Titrate oxygen according to the prescribed target and monitor
respiratory status. D. Restrict oxygen because supplemental oxygen is contraindicated in
COPD.
,Rationale: Clients with COPD may require carefully titrated oxygen therapy. Oxygen should not
be withheld, but excessive oxygen administration can contribute to worsening hypercapnia in
some susceptible clients.
5. A client with pneumonia has a respiratory rate of 30/min, oxygen saturation of
89%, and increasing work of breathing. Which nursing intervention has the
highest priority?
A. Offer oral fluids. B. Obtain a detailed dietary history. C. Encourage ambulation. D. Apply
prescribed supplemental oxygen and reassess respiratory status.
Rationale: The client's findings indicate impaired oxygenation and increased respiratory effort.
Supporting oxygenation is the immediate priority while additional diagnostic and therapeutic
interventions are initiated.
6. A nurse is teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer after surgery.
Which instruction is correct?
A. Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece. B. Use the device only when shortness of breath
occurs. C. Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece, then briefly hold the breath.
D. Breathe rapidly through the device for several minutes.
Rationale: Slow, sustained inspiration with a brief breath hold promotes alveolar expansion and
helps prevent postoperative atelectasis. The device is used regularly rather than only when
symptoms occur.
7. A client with asthma develops wheezing and increasing shortness of breath.
Which prescribed medication would the nurse expect to provide rapid
bronchodilation?
A. Fluticasone B. Montelukast C. Budesonide D. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist that produces rapid
bronchodilation and is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm. Inhaled
corticosteroids are controller medications rather than immediate rescue therapy.
8. A client experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation is unable to speak in
complete sentences because of dyspnea. What does this finding indicate?
A. The client's asthma is adequately controlled. B. The client is experiencing only mild
bronchospasm. C. The client is ready for discharge. D. The client may have severe respiratory
compromise requiring immediate intervention.
Rationale: Inability to speak normally because of dyspnea is a significant indicator of severe
respiratory distress. The nurse should rapidly assess oxygenation, administer prescribed
emergency therapy, and escalate care as indicated.
, 9. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath when lying flat.
Which term describes this symptom?
A. Hemoptysis B. Bradypnea C. Orthopnea D. Pleurisy
Rationale: Orthopnea is difficulty breathing while lying flat and is commonly associated with
pulmonary congestion in heart failure. Hemoptysis refers to coughing blood, while bradypnea
refers to an abnormally slow respiratory rate.
10. During assessment of a client with left-sided heart failure, which finding would the
nurse expect?
A. Distended abdomen without respiratory symptoms B. Crackles at the lung bases C.
Unilateral calf pain D. Increased bowel sounds
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary vascular congestion, which may produce
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral and systemic manifestations are more
characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
11. A client with heart failure is prescribed daily weights. Which instruction is most
appropriate?
A. Weigh at different times each day to obtain an average. B. Weigh only when swelling
becomes noticeable. C. Use different scales to verify the measurement. D. Weigh at
approximately the same time each morning using the same scale.
Rationale: Consistent daily weights provide a reliable method for detecting fluid retention. A
rapid increase in weight can indicate worsening heart failure before severe edema becomes
obvious.
12. A client taking furosemide for heart failure is at increased risk for which
electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypermagnesemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary excretion of potassium, sodium,
and water. Hypokalemia can cause weakness and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
13. A client with suspected myocardial infarction reports crushing substernal chest
pain radiating to the left arm. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to walk to reduce anxiety. B. Offer a large meal before medications are
administered. C. Delay assessment until the pain becomes severe. D. Rapidly assess the client
and initiate the prescribed acute coronary syndrome protocol.
