• NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
Full TEST BANK 4 — Emergency Care and
Transportation of the Sick and Injured (12th
Edition, AAOS) — Complete EMT-Level
Instructor Question Bank With Correct Answers,
Deep Rationales & All 41 Chapters | Updated
2026 Version
All of the following are components of the Cincinnati stroke scale, EXCEPT:
• A:pupil size.
• B:arm movement.
• C:facial droop.
P 1
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
• D:speech pattern. - Correct Answer :The correct answer is A;
Reason:
The Cincinnati Stroke Scale, which tests speech, facial droop, and arm drift, is a reliable tool that should be used
during your assessment of a patient suspected of having had a stroke. To test speech, ask the patient to repeat
a simple phrase; he or she should be able to repeat the phrase without slurred speech. If the patient cannot
repeat the phrase, or repeats it with slurred speech, a stroke should be assumed. To test facial movement, ask
the patient to smile and show his or her teeth; both sides of the face should move symmetrically (equally). If only
one side of the face is moving well (facial droop), a stroke should be assumed. To test arm movement, ask the
patient to hold both arms in front of his or her body, palms up, with eyes closed and without moving. Over the
next 10 seconds, watch the patient's hands. If one arm drifts down toward the ground, you know that side is
weak. You should assess pupillary size, equality, and reactivity in any patient with a neurological disorder;
however, this is not a part of the Cincinnati Stroke Scale.
Despite direct pressure, a large laceration to the medial aspect of the arm continues to bleed profusely. You
should:
• A:pack the inside of the laceration with sterile gauze.
• B:locate and apply pressure to the brachial artery.
• C:continue direct pressure and elevate the extremity.
• D:quickly apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury. - Correct Answer :You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:
In most cases, external bleeding can be controlled with direct pressure. However, if a wound continues to bleed
profusely despite direct pressure, a proximal tourniquet should be applied without delay. If the external bleeding
is that severe, elevating the extremity would be of little help. You should not pack anything inside an open
wound. Evidence has shown that locating and applying adequate pressure to an arterial pressure point is difficult
and time-consuming. If not promptly controlled, severe external bleeding will result in hemorrhagic shock and
death
The wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart is called the:
• A:pericardium.
• B:carina.
• C:mediastinum.
P 2
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
• D:septum. - Correct Answer :The correct answer is D;
Reason:
The septum is the wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart. There is a septum for both the atria
and the ventricles. The carina is the bifurcation point of the trachea, and the mediastinum is the space between
the lungs in which the heart, great vessels, and a portion of the esophagus lie. The pericardium is the sac that
surrounds the heart and contains pericardial fluid.
At the peak of the inspiratory phase, the alveoli in the lungs contain:
• A:high quantities of carbon dioxide.
• B:equal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• C:minimal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• D:more oxygen than carbon dioxide. - Correct Answer :You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:
At the peak of the inspiratory (inhalation) phase, the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen that the patient just
breathed in. During the expiratory (exhalation) phase, the oxygen moves from the alveoli to the left side of the
heart and the carbon dioxide is exhaled into the atmosphere. The process of oxygen and carbon dioxide
exchange in the lungs is called pulmonary (external) respiration.
During a soccer game, a 20-year-old man collided shoulder-to-shoulder with another player. He has pain and a
noticeable anterior bulge to the left shoulder. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of
immobilizing this injury?
• A:An air-inflatable splint with the left arm immobilized in the flexed position
• B:A sling to support the left arm and swathes to maintain downward traction
• C:A sling to support the left arm and swathes to secure the arm to the body
• D:A long board splint with the left arm immobilized in the extended position - Correct Answer :You selected
C; This is correct!
Reason:
P 3
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
Injuries to the shoulder are most effectively immobilized with the use of a sling and swathe. The sling will provide
support and relieve pain to the shoulder, and the swathe will secure the arm to the body. The purpose of the
swathe is not to facilitate traction. Patients with dislocated or fractured shoulders will not allow you to extend
their arm, so any attempt to immobilize the injury in such a fashion will not be possible and could worsen the
injury.
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 MPH, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries
during the:
• A:first collision.
• B:fourth collision.
• C:third collision.
• D:second collision. - Correct Answer :You selected C; This is correct!
Reason:
Motor-vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions. Understanding the events that occur during
each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle
strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not
directly affect patient care. It does, however, provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has
an indirect effect on patient care. During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the
vehicle. Just like the obvious damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and
usually apparent during your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs
collide with the solid structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be
as obvious as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening.
The MOST appropriate treatment for a semiconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations includes:
• A:an oropharyngeal airway and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device.
• B:a nasopharyngeal airway and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device.
• C:a nasopharyngeal airway and high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
• D:an oropharyngeal airway and high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. - Correct Answer :You selected
B; This is correct!
Reason:
P 4
Final Exam
Full TEST BANK 4 — Emergency Care and
Transportation of the Sick and Injured (12th
Edition, AAOS) — Complete EMT-Level
Instructor Question Bank With Correct Answers,
Deep Rationales & All 41 Chapters | Updated
2026 Version
All of the following are components of the Cincinnati stroke scale, EXCEPT:
• A:pupil size.
• B:arm movement.
• C:facial droop.
P 1
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
• D:speech pattern. - Correct Answer :The correct answer is A;
Reason:
The Cincinnati Stroke Scale, which tests speech, facial droop, and arm drift, is a reliable tool that should be used
during your assessment of a patient suspected of having had a stroke. To test speech, ask the patient to repeat
a simple phrase; he or she should be able to repeat the phrase without slurred speech. If the patient cannot
repeat the phrase, or repeats it with slurred speech, a stroke should be assumed. To test facial movement, ask
the patient to smile and show his or her teeth; both sides of the face should move symmetrically (equally). If only
one side of the face is moving well (facial droop), a stroke should be assumed. To test arm movement, ask the
patient to hold both arms in front of his or her body, palms up, with eyes closed and without moving. Over the
next 10 seconds, watch the patient's hands. If one arm drifts down toward the ground, you know that side is
weak. You should assess pupillary size, equality, and reactivity in any patient with a neurological disorder;
however, this is not a part of the Cincinnati Stroke Scale.
Despite direct pressure, a large laceration to the medial aspect of the arm continues to bleed profusely. You
should:
• A:pack the inside of the laceration with sterile gauze.
• B:locate and apply pressure to the brachial artery.
• C:continue direct pressure and elevate the extremity.
• D:quickly apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury. - Correct Answer :You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:
In most cases, external bleeding can be controlled with direct pressure. However, if a wound continues to bleed
profusely despite direct pressure, a proximal tourniquet should be applied without delay. If the external bleeding
is that severe, elevating the extremity would be of little help. You should not pack anything inside an open
wound. Evidence has shown that locating and applying adequate pressure to an arterial pressure point is difficult
and time-consuming. If not promptly controlled, severe external bleeding will result in hemorrhagic shock and
death
The wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart is called the:
• A:pericardium.
• B:carina.
• C:mediastinum.
P 2
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
• D:septum. - Correct Answer :The correct answer is D;
Reason:
The septum is the wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart. There is a septum for both the atria
and the ventricles. The carina is the bifurcation point of the trachea, and the mediastinum is the space between
the lungs in which the heart, great vessels, and a portion of the esophagus lie. The pericardium is the sac that
surrounds the heart and contains pericardial fluid.
At the peak of the inspiratory phase, the alveoli in the lungs contain:
• A:high quantities of carbon dioxide.
• B:equal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• C:minimal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• D:more oxygen than carbon dioxide. - Correct Answer :You selected D; This is correct!
Reason:
At the peak of the inspiratory (inhalation) phase, the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen that the patient just
breathed in. During the expiratory (exhalation) phase, the oxygen moves from the alveoli to the left side of the
heart and the carbon dioxide is exhaled into the atmosphere. The process of oxygen and carbon dioxide
exchange in the lungs is called pulmonary (external) respiration.
During a soccer game, a 20-year-old man collided shoulder-to-shoulder with another player. He has pain and a
noticeable anterior bulge to the left shoulder. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of
immobilizing this injury?
• A:An air-inflatable splint with the left arm immobilized in the flexed position
• B:A sling to support the left arm and swathes to maintain downward traction
• C:A sling to support the left arm and swathes to secure the arm to the body
• D:A long board splint with the left arm immobilized in the extended position - Correct Answer :You selected
C; This is correct!
Reason:
P 3
, • NUR 2755 MDC4 09/11/2026
Final Exam
Injuries to the shoulder are most effectively immobilized with the use of a sling and swathe. The sling will provide
support and relieve pain to the shoulder, and the swathe will secure the arm to the body. The purpose of the
swathe is not to facilitate traction. Patients with dislocated or fractured shoulders will not allow you to extend
their arm, so any attempt to immobilize the injury in such a fashion will not be possible and could worsen the
injury.
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 MPH, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries
during the:
• A:first collision.
• B:fourth collision.
• C:third collision.
• D:second collision. - Correct Answer :You selected C; This is correct!
Reason:
Motor-vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions. Understanding the events that occur during
each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle
strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not
directly affect patient care. It does, however, provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has
an indirect effect on patient care. During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the
vehicle. Just like the obvious damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and
usually apparent during your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs
collide with the solid structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be
as obvious as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening.
The MOST appropriate treatment for a semiconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations includes:
• A:an oropharyngeal airway and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device.
• B:a nasopharyngeal airway and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device.
• C:a nasopharyngeal airway and high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
• D:an oropharyngeal airway and high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. - Correct Answer :You selected
B; This is correct!
Reason:
P 4
