WEST COAST EMT BLOCK EXAM 2
Comprehensive Practice – 2026/2027 Edition
Aligned with the West Coast EMT Curriculum & NREMT Standards
200 Questions | 8 Content Domains | Multiple Choice (A–D)
Contents
Section 1: Airway Management, Respiration & Ventilation – Anatomy, Adjuncts, Oxygen, BVM, CPAP (30 questions)
Section 2: Patient Assessment – Scene Size-Up, Primary/Secondary Survey, History, Vitals (30 questions)
Section 3: Medical Emergencies – Respiratory, Cardiac, Diabetic, Allergic, Neuro, Behavioral (35 questions)
Section 4: Trauma Emergencies – Bleeding, Shock, Head/Spine, Chest, Abdomen, Burns (35 questions)
Section 5: Special Populations – Obstetrics, Pediatrics, Geriatrics, Special Needs (25 questions)
Section 6: EMS Operations & Safety – Ambulance, MCI, Triage, Rescue, Hazmat (25 questions)
Section 7: Pharmacology & Medication Administration – Common Drugs, Routes, Calculations (10 questions)
Section 8: Integrated Scenarios – Complex, Multi-System Emergencies (10 questions)
How to use this exam: Work through each section sequentially. One answer choice per question is correct; the correct answer
and a rationale follow each question. Use the rationales to reinforce clinical judgment and core content. A reference answer key is
provided on the final page.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 1
, Section 1: Airway Management, Respiration & Ventilation – Anatomy, Adjuncts,
Section 1
Oxygen, BVM, CPAP (30 questions)
Q1: An unresponsive patient has loud, snoring respirations. What is the MOST likely cause?
A. The tongue obstructing the airway [CORRECT]
B. Bronchospasm
C. Pulmonary edema
D. A foreign body in the trachea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Snoring indicates partial upper airway obstruction by the tongue falling back in an unresponsive patient,
correctable with a head-tilt/chin-lift and an airway adjunct.
Q2: Which maneuver should the EMT use to open the airway of a patient with a suspected cervical spine
injury?
A. Jaw-thrust maneuver [CORRECT]
B. Head-tilt/chin-lift
C. Sellick maneuver
D. Hyperextension of the neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The jaw-thrust opens the airway while maintaining cervical spine alignment, unlike the head-tilt/chin-lift, which
extends the neck.
Q3: Which finding CONTRAINDICATES placement of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A. An intact gag reflex [CORRECT]
B. Unresponsiveness
C. Snoring respirations
D. Absent gag reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An OPA is used only in unresponsive patients without a gag reflex; placing one in a patient with an intact gag
reflex can cause vomiting and aspiration.
Q4: How should the EMT measure an oropharyngeal airway for correct sizing?
A. From the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. From the chin to the sternal notch
D. From the lips to the chin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The OPA is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. The nostril-to-earlobe
measurement is used for a nasopharyngeal airway.
Q5: Which airway adjunct is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe?
A. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) [CORRECT]
B. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Supraglottic airway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The NPA is sized from the nostril to the earlobe, and it is inserted into the larger nostril with the bevel toward
the septum.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 2
, Q6: A nasopharyngeal airway should be used with caution or avoided in a patient with:
A. Suspected basilar skull fracture or significant facial trauma [CORRECT]
B. An intact gag reflex
C. A history of asthma
D. Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An NPA can enter the cranial vault in patients with basilar skull fractures or facial trauma, so it is
contraindicated or used cautiously.
Q7: What is the MAXIMUM recommended suctioning time for an adult patient?
A. 10 to 15 seconds [CORRECT]
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 5 seconds only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suctioning should last no more than 10 to 15 seconds in adults (and about 5 seconds in infants/children) to
avoid removing too much oxygen.
Q8: Which technique is correct when suctioning a patient's airway?
A. Insert the catheter without suction and apply suction only while withdrawing [CORRECT]
B. Apply suction while inserting the catheter
C. Insert the catheter as deeply as possible and hold it
D. Suction for at least 30 seconds continuously
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suction is applied only during withdrawal to avoid pushing secretions deeper and to limit oxygen removal.
Q9: What is the correct ventilation rate when ventilating an apneic ADULT with a bag-valve-mask device?
A. One breath every 5 to 6 seconds [CORRECT]
B. One breath every 2 seconds
C. One breath every 10 seconds
D. Two breaths every 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adults in respiratory arrest are ventilated at about 10 to 12 breaths per minute (one breath every 5 to 6
seconds) to avoid gastric distention and hyperventilation.
Q10: What is the appropriate oxygen flow rate for a nonrebreather mask?
A. 12 to 15 L/min [CORRECT]
B. 1 to 6 L/min
C. 6 to 8 L/min
D. 25 L/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonrebreather mask requires 12 to 15 L/min to keep the reservoir bag inflated and deliver high oxygen
concentrations (up to about 90%).
Q11: Which oxygen delivery device delivers 24% to 44% oxygen at 1 to 6 L/min?
A. Nasal cannula [CORRECT]
B. Nonrebreather mask
C. Bag-valve-mask
D. Venturi mask only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nasal cannula delivers low-flow oxygen (1 to 6 L/min, roughly 24% to 44% FiO2) and is used for patients
with mild hypoxemia.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 3
, Q12: CPAP is MOST beneficial for which patient?
A. A patient in acute pulmonary edema with respiratory distress [CORRECT]
B. An apneic, unresponsive patient
C. A patient in cardiac arrest
D. A patient with a complete airway obstruction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CPAP provides continuous positive pressure that keeps fluid-filled alveoli open, improving oxygenation in
pulmonary edema (CHF) and COPD/asthma.
Q13: Which finding is a CONTRAINDICATION to CPAP?
A. The patient cannot maintain their own airway [CORRECT]
B. The patient is awake and anxious
C. The patient has crackles and a history of heart failure
D. The patient has a respiratory rate of 28/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CPAP requires an awake patient who can maintain their own airway; hypotension, altered mental status, and
an inability to maintain the airway are contraindications.
Q14: Stridor heard on auscultation indicates obstruction at which level?
A. Upper airway [CORRECT]
B. Lower airway (bronchioles)
C. Alveoli
D. Pleural space
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched upper airway sound heard on inspiration, indicating partial obstruction of the upper
airway.
Q15: Wheezing on exhalation is MOST consistent with:
A. Lower airway bronchoconstriction [CORRECT]
B. Upper airway obstruction
C. A foreign body in the larynx
D. Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wheezing reflects narrowed lower airways (bronchospasm), as in asthma, COPD, or anaphylaxis. Stridor
indicates upper airway narrowing.
Q16: What is the normal range for end-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2)?
A. 35 to 45 mm Hg [CORRECT]
B. 20 to 25 mm Hg
C. 60 to 70 mm Hg
D. 80 to 100 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Normal EtCO2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. Values outside this range can indicate hypo- or hyperventilation.
Q17: Which waveform capnography value helps confirm effective chest compressions during CPR?
A. EtCO2 of at least 10 to 20 mm Hg [CORRECT]
B. EtCO2 of 0 mm Hg
C. A flatline with no waveform
D. EtCO2 above 60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An EtCO2 of at least 10 to 20 mm Hg during CPR indicates adequate compressions and perfusion; a sudden
rise suggests return of spontaneous circulation.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 4
Comprehensive Practice – 2026/2027 Edition
Aligned with the West Coast EMT Curriculum & NREMT Standards
200 Questions | 8 Content Domains | Multiple Choice (A–D)
Contents
Section 1: Airway Management, Respiration & Ventilation – Anatomy, Adjuncts, Oxygen, BVM, CPAP (30 questions)
Section 2: Patient Assessment – Scene Size-Up, Primary/Secondary Survey, History, Vitals (30 questions)
Section 3: Medical Emergencies – Respiratory, Cardiac, Diabetic, Allergic, Neuro, Behavioral (35 questions)
Section 4: Trauma Emergencies – Bleeding, Shock, Head/Spine, Chest, Abdomen, Burns (35 questions)
Section 5: Special Populations – Obstetrics, Pediatrics, Geriatrics, Special Needs (25 questions)
Section 6: EMS Operations & Safety – Ambulance, MCI, Triage, Rescue, Hazmat (25 questions)
Section 7: Pharmacology & Medication Administration – Common Drugs, Routes, Calculations (10 questions)
Section 8: Integrated Scenarios – Complex, Multi-System Emergencies (10 questions)
How to use this exam: Work through each section sequentially. One answer choice per question is correct; the correct answer
and a rationale follow each question. Use the rationales to reinforce clinical judgment and core content. A reference answer key is
provided on the final page.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 1
, Section 1: Airway Management, Respiration & Ventilation – Anatomy, Adjuncts,
Section 1
Oxygen, BVM, CPAP (30 questions)
Q1: An unresponsive patient has loud, snoring respirations. What is the MOST likely cause?
A. The tongue obstructing the airway [CORRECT]
B. Bronchospasm
C. Pulmonary edema
D. A foreign body in the trachea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Snoring indicates partial upper airway obstruction by the tongue falling back in an unresponsive patient,
correctable with a head-tilt/chin-lift and an airway adjunct.
Q2: Which maneuver should the EMT use to open the airway of a patient with a suspected cervical spine
injury?
A. Jaw-thrust maneuver [CORRECT]
B. Head-tilt/chin-lift
C. Sellick maneuver
D. Hyperextension of the neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The jaw-thrust opens the airway while maintaining cervical spine alignment, unlike the head-tilt/chin-lift, which
extends the neck.
Q3: Which finding CONTRAINDICATES placement of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A. An intact gag reflex [CORRECT]
B. Unresponsiveness
C. Snoring respirations
D. Absent gag reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An OPA is used only in unresponsive patients without a gag reflex; placing one in a patient with an intact gag
reflex can cause vomiting and aspiration.
Q4: How should the EMT measure an oropharyngeal airway for correct sizing?
A. From the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. From the chin to the sternal notch
D. From the lips to the chin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The OPA is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. The nostril-to-earlobe
measurement is used for a nasopharyngeal airway.
Q5: Which airway adjunct is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe?
A. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) [CORRECT]
B. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Supraglottic airway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The NPA is sized from the nostril to the earlobe, and it is inserted into the larger nostril with the bevel toward
the septum.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 2
, Q6: A nasopharyngeal airway should be used with caution or avoided in a patient with:
A. Suspected basilar skull fracture or significant facial trauma [CORRECT]
B. An intact gag reflex
C. A history of asthma
D. Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An NPA can enter the cranial vault in patients with basilar skull fractures or facial trauma, so it is
contraindicated or used cautiously.
Q7: What is the MAXIMUM recommended suctioning time for an adult patient?
A. 10 to 15 seconds [CORRECT]
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 5 seconds only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suctioning should last no more than 10 to 15 seconds in adults (and about 5 seconds in infants/children) to
avoid removing too much oxygen.
Q8: Which technique is correct when suctioning a patient's airway?
A. Insert the catheter without suction and apply suction only while withdrawing [CORRECT]
B. Apply suction while inserting the catheter
C. Insert the catheter as deeply as possible and hold it
D. Suction for at least 30 seconds continuously
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suction is applied only during withdrawal to avoid pushing secretions deeper and to limit oxygen removal.
Q9: What is the correct ventilation rate when ventilating an apneic ADULT with a bag-valve-mask device?
A. One breath every 5 to 6 seconds [CORRECT]
B. One breath every 2 seconds
C. One breath every 10 seconds
D. Two breaths every 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adults in respiratory arrest are ventilated at about 10 to 12 breaths per minute (one breath every 5 to 6
seconds) to avoid gastric distention and hyperventilation.
Q10: What is the appropriate oxygen flow rate for a nonrebreather mask?
A. 12 to 15 L/min [CORRECT]
B. 1 to 6 L/min
C. 6 to 8 L/min
D. 25 L/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonrebreather mask requires 12 to 15 L/min to keep the reservoir bag inflated and deliver high oxygen
concentrations (up to about 90%).
Q11: Which oxygen delivery device delivers 24% to 44% oxygen at 1 to 6 L/min?
A. Nasal cannula [CORRECT]
B. Nonrebreather mask
C. Bag-valve-mask
D. Venturi mask only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nasal cannula delivers low-flow oxygen (1 to 6 L/min, roughly 24% to 44% FiO2) and is used for patients
with mild hypoxemia.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 3
, Q12: CPAP is MOST beneficial for which patient?
A. A patient in acute pulmonary edema with respiratory distress [CORRECT]
B. An apneic, unresponsive patient
C. A patient in cardiac arrest
D. A patient with a complete airway obstruction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CPAP provides continuous positive pressure that keeps fluid-filled alveoli open, improving oxygenation in
pulmonary edema (CHF) and COPD/asthma.
Q13: Which finding is a CONTRAINDICATION to CPAP?
A. The patient cannot maintain their own airway [CORRECT]
B. The patient is awake and anxious
C. The patient has crackles and a history of heart failure
D. The patient has a respiratory rate of 28/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CPAP requires an awake patient who can maintain their own airway; hypotension, altered mental status, and
an inability to maintain the airway are contraindications.
Q14: Stridor heard on auscultation indicates obstruction at which level?
A. Upper airway [CORRECT]
B. Lower airway (bronchioles)
C. Alveoli
D. Pleural space
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched upper airway sound heard on inspiration, indicating partial obstruction of the upper
airway.
Q15: Wheezing on exhalation is MOST consistent with:
A. Lower airway bronchoconstriction [CORRECT]
B. Upper airway obstruction
C. A foreign body in the larynx
D. Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wheezing reflects narrowed lower airways (bronchospasm), as in asthma, COPD, or anaphylaxis. Stridor
indicates upper airway narrowing.
Q16: What is the normal range for end-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2)?
A. 35 to 45 mm Hg [CORRECT]
B. 20 to 25 mm Hg
C. 60 to 70 mm Hg
D. 80 to 100 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Normal EtCO2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. Values outside this range can indicate hypo- or hyperventilation.
Q17: Which waveform capnography value helps confirm effective chest compressions during CPR?
A. EtCO2 of at least 10 to 20 mm Hg [CORRECT]
B. EtCO2 of 0 mm Hg
C. A flatline with no waveform
D. EtCO2 above 60 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An EtCO2 of at least 10 to 20 mm Hg during CPR indicates adequate compressions and perfusion; a sudden
rise suggests return of spontaneous circulation.
West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 – Comprehensive Practice (2026/2027 Edition) Page 4
