ATI Fundamentals Proctored Practice Exam (2023–
2027 NGN Versions) | Nursing Core Concepts | 100
Verified Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted with dehydration. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Poor skin turgor
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Poor skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration due to decreased interstitial fluid.
Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema are not typical findings associated with
dehydration; tachycardia and hypotension are more common.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously. Which of the following sites should
the nurse select?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Abdomen, 2 inches from the umbilicus
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subcutaneous heparin is best administered in the abdominal area, at least 2
inches away from the umbilicus, to ensure proper absorption and reduce risk of hematoma.
Muscle sites are inappropriate for subcutaneous injections.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the
following foods should the nurse recommend?
A. Canned soup
B. Fresh fruits and vegetables
C. Processed deli meats
D. Frozen pizza
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fresh fruits and vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed meats, and frozen pizzas are high in sodium and should be avoided on a low-
sodium diet.
4. A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take to test cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)?
A. Ask the client to smile and frown
B. Test the client's visual acuity
C. Ask the client to swallow water
D. Check the client's gag reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) controls facial expressions. Asking the client to
smile and frown tests its function. Visual acuity tests CN II, swallowing tests CN IX and X,
and the gag reflex tests CN IX and X.
5. A nurse is calculating a client's intake and output. The client consumed 8 oz of coffee, 4 oz of
gelatin, and 6 oz of water. What is the client's total intake in mL? (Round to the nearest whole
number.)
A. 540 mL
B. 450 mL
C. 600 mL
D. 720 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 8 oz + 4 oz + 6 oz = 18 oz. Convert ounces to mL: 18 × 30 = 540 mL. Therefore,
the total intake is 540 mL.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication."
B. "Inhale quickly and deeply through your nose."
C. "Use the inhaler immediately before meals."
D. "Shake the inhaler for 10 seconds before each use."
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: After inhaling the medication from an MDI, the client should hold their breath for
approximately 10 seconds to allow the medication to reach the lungs. The client should
exhale fully before inhaling slowly and deeply through the mouth, not the nose.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 lb in 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A potassium level of
3.0 mEq/L is below the expected reference range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and should be reported.
The other findings are within normal limits.
8. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Lock the wheels of the wheelchair
B. Raise the bed to its highest position
C. Ask the client to stand and pivot
D. Place the wheelchair at a 90-degree angle to the bed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first action is to ensure safety by locking the wheels of the wheelchair to
prevent movement during the transfer. The bed should be lowered to a safe height, and the
wheelchair should be positioned at a 45-degree angle to the bed.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?
A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours
B. Administer opioids around the clock
C. Keep the client in a supine position
D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps prevent atelectasis and
pneumonia by promoting lung expansion. Opioids can suppress respiration, supine
positioning can impair lung expansion, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
10. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the
following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A. INR 2.5
B. aPTT 30 seconds
C. INR 5.0
D. Platelets 250,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 5.0 is above the therapeutic range (2.0–3.0 for most clients on
warfarin) and indicates an increased risk for bleeding. The nurse should report this finding.
An INR of 2.5 is therapeutic.
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse before taking the medication."
B. "I will take an antacid with the medication."
C. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
D. "I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients taking digoxin should monitor their pulse before each dose and hold the
medication if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute. Antacids can decrease digoxin
absorption, doubling doses is unsafe, and potassium-rich foods are encouraged for clients
on diuretics, not specifically digoxin.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings
indicates a stage 2 pressure ulcer?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone
B. Partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis
C. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with slough
Correct Answer: B
2027 NGN Versions) | Nursing Core Concepts | 100
Verified Questions with Correct Answers & Rationales
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted with dehydration. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Poor skin turgor
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Poor skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration due to decreased interstitial fluid.
Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema are not typical findings associated with
dehydration; tachycardia and hypotension are more common.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously. Which of the following sites should
the nurse select?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Abdomen, 2 inches from the umbilicus
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subcutaneous heparin is best administered in the abdominal area, at least 2
inches away from the umbilicus, to ensure proper absorption and reduce risk of hematoma.
Muscle sites are inappropriate for subcutaneous injections.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the
following foods should the nurse recommend?
A. Canned soup
B. Fresh fruits and vegetables
C. Processed deli meats
D. Frozen pizza
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fresh fruits and vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed meats, and frozen pizzas are high in sodium and should be avoided on a low-
sodium diet.
4. A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take to test cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)?
A. Ask the client to smile and frown
B. Test the client's visual acuity
C. Ask the client to swallow water
D. Check the client's gag reflex
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) controls facial expressions. Asking the client to
smile and frown tests its function. Visual acuity tests CN II, swallowing tests CN IX and X,
and the gag reflex tests CN IX and X.
5. A nurse is calculating a client's intake and output. The client consumed 8 oz of coffee, 4 oz of
gelatin, and 6 oz of water. What is the client's total intake in mL? (Round to the nearest whole
number.)
A. 540 mL
B. 450 mL
C. 600 mL
D. 720 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 8 oz + 4 oz + 6 oz = 18 oz. Convert ounces to mL: 18 × 30 = 540 mL. Therefore,
the total intake is 540 mL.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication."
B. "Inhale quickly and deeply through your nose."
C. "Use the inhaler immediately before meals."
D. "Shake the inhaler for 10 seconds before each use."
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: After inhaling the medication from an MDI, the client should hold their breath for
approximately 10 seconds to allow the medication to reach the lungs. The client should
exhale fully before inhaling slowly and deeply through the mouth, not the nose.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 lb in 24 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A potassium level of
3.0 mEq/L is below the expected reference range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and should be reported.
The other findings are within normal limits.
8. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Lock the wheels of the wheelchair
B. Raise the bed to its highest position
C. Ask the client to stand and pivot
D. Place the wheelchair at a 90-degree angle to the bed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first action is to ensure safety by locking the wheels of the wheelchair to
prevent movement during the transfer. The bed should be lowered to a safe height, and the
wheelchair should be positioned at a 45-degree angle to the bed.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?
A. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours
B. Administer opioids around the clock
C. Keep the client in a supine position
D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
, Rationale: Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps prevent atelectasis and
pneumonia by promoting lung expansion. Opioids can suppress respiration, supine
positioning can impair lung expansion, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
10. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the
following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A. INR 2.5
B. aPTT 30 seconds
C. INR 5.0
D. Platelets 250,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 5.0 is above the therapeutic range (2.0–3.0 for most clients on
warfarin) and indicates an increased risk for bleeding. The nurse should report this finding.
An INR of 2.5 is therapeutic.
11. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse before taking the medication."
B. "I will take an antacid with the medication."
C. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
D. "I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients taking digoxin should monitor their pulse before each dose and hold the
medication if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute. Antacids can decrease digoxin
absorption, doubling doses is unsafe, and potassium-rich foods are encouraged for clients
on diuretics, not specifically digoxin.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings
indicates a stage 2 pressure ulcer?
A. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone
B. Partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis
C. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with slough
Correct Answer: B
