NBRC TMC – Therapist Multiple-Choice Exam
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1. A patient with acute respiratory distress has a respiratory rate of
34/min, accessory muscle use, and an SpO₂ of 86% on room air.
What is the most appropriate initial action by the respiratory
therapist?
a. Obtain a sputum culture
b. Administer supplemental oxygen
c. Perform a complete pulmonary function test
d. Place the patient in a supine position
Answer: b. Administer supplemental oxygen
Rationale: The immediate priority is correcting significant hypoxemia.
Supplemental oxygen should be initiated promptly while the therapist
,continues assessment and determines the underlying cause of the
respiratory distress.
2. Which arterial blood gas value represents normal arterial pH?
a. 7.20
b. 7.30
c. 7.40
d. 7.55
Answer: c. 7.40
Rationale: Normal arterial pH is approximately 7.35–7.45, with 7.40
considered the midpoint. Values below 7.35 indicate acidemia, while
values above 7.45 indicate alkalemia.
3. A patient has the following ABG results: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 55 mm
Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. How should these results be interpreted?
a. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b. Compensated respiratory acidosis
c. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: a. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
,Rationale: The pH is low, indicating acidemia, and the PaCO₂ is
elevated, identifying a respiratory cause. The normal bicarbonate
indicates that significant metabolic compensation has not occurred.
4. Which finding is most characteristic of chronic respiratory
acidosis?
a. Decreased HCO₃⁻
b. Increased HCO₃⁻
c. Decreased PaCO₂
d. Increased pH
Answer: b. Increased HCO₃⁻
Rationale: In chronic respiratory acidosis, the kidneys retain
bicarbonate to compensate for persistent carbon dioxide retention.
Therefore, HCO₃⁻ becomes elevated over time.
5. Which oxygen-delivery device provides the most precise fixed FiO₂
for a spontaneously breathing patient?
a. Nasal cannula
b. Simple mask
c. Venturi mask
d. Nonrebreather mask
Answer: c. Venturi mask
, Rationale: A Venturi mask uses air entrainment to deliver a
predictable and relatively fixed oxygen concentration. It is particularly
useful when precise oxygen control is important, such as in some
patients with chronic CO₂ retention.
6. A patient receiving oxygen by nasal cannula has an SpO₂ of 88%.
The patient is awake and breathing spontaneously. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
a. Remove the oxygen
b. Increase the oxygen flow as clinically indicated
c. Immediately perform chest compressions
d. Place the patient on room air for reassessment
Answer: b. Increase the oxygen flow as clinically indicated
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 88% may represent inadequate oxygenation
depending on the patient's clinical condition and prescribed target.
Oxygen should be adjusted according to the patient's target
saturation and clinical status while the cause of hypoxemia is
assessed.
7. Which condition is most commonly associated with an obstructive
pattern on pulmonary function testing?
Questions and Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationale 2027 Q&A| Instant
Download Pdf
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress has a respiratory rate of
34/min, accessory muscle use, and an SpO₂ of 86% on room air.
What is the most appropriate initial action by the respiratory
therapist?
a. Obtain a sputum culture
b. Administer supplemental oxygen
c. Perform a complete pulmonary function test
d. Place the patient in a supine position
Answer: b. Administer supplemental oxygen
Rationale: The immediate priority is correcting significant hypoxemia.
Supplemental oxygen should be initiated promptly while the therapist
,continues assessment and determines the underlying cause of the
respiratory distress.
2. Which arterial blood gas value represents normal arterial pH?
a. 7.20
b. 7.30
c. 7.40
d. 7.55
Answer: c. 7.40
Rationale: Normal arterial pH is approximately 7.35–7.45, with 7.40
considered the midpoint. Values below 7.35 indicate acidemia, while
values above 7.45 indicate alkalemia.
3. A patient has the following ABG results: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 55 mm
Hg, HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. How should these results be interpreted?
a. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b. Compensated respiratory acidosis
c. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: a. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
,Rationale: The pH is low, indicating acidemia, and the PaCO₂ is
elevated, identifying a respiratory cause. The normal bicarbonate
indicates that significant metabolic compensation has not occurred.
4. Which finding is most characteristic of chronic respiratory
acidosis?
a. Decreased HCO₃⁻
b. Increased HCO₃⁻
c. Decreased PaCO₂
d. Increased pH
Answer: b. Increased HCO₃⁻
Rationale: In chronic respiratory acidosis, the kidneys retain
bicarbonate to compensate for persistent carbon dioxide retention.
Therefore, HCO₃⁻ becomes elevated over time.
5. Which oxygen-delivery device provides the most precise fixed FiO₂
for a spontaneously breathing patient?
a. Nasal cannula
b. Simple mask
c. Venturi mask
d. Nonrebreather mask
Answer: c. Venturi mask
, Rationale: A Venturi mask uses air entrainment to deliver a
predictable and relatively fixed oxygen concentration. It is particularly
useful when precise oxygen control is important, such as in some
patients with chronic CO₂ retention.
6. A patient receiving oxygen by nasal cannula has an SpO₂ of 88%.
The patient is awake and breathing spontaneously. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
a. Remove the oxygen
b. Increase the oxygen flow as clinically indicated
c. Immediately perform chest compressions
d. Place the patient on room air for reassessment
Answer: b. Increase the oxygen flow as clinically indicated
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 88% may represent inadequate oxygenation
depending on the patient's clinical condition and prescribed target.
Oxygen should be adjusted according to the patient's target
saturation and clinical status while the cause of hypoxemia is
assessed.
7. Which condition is most commonly associated with an obstructive
pattern on pulmonary function testing?
