Page 1 of 155
,Page 2 of 155
TCAR Post-Test Exam () Actual Test;
Questions & Correct Answers, 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
1. A 45-year-old male with severe TBI has ICP 22 mm Hg and
CPP 55 mm Hg. What is the priority intervention?
• A) Increase IV fluids to raise CPP
• B) Administer mannitol 0.5–1 g/kg
• C) Elevate HOB to 90 degrees
• D) Hyperventilate to PaCO2 25 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B – Mannitol reduces ICP via osmotic
diuresis. CPP <60 with elevated ICP requires ICP
reduction. HOB 30°, not 90°. Hyperventilation is
temporary and can cause ischemia.
,Page 3 of 155
2. Scenario: Post-resuscitation GCS 7, pupils equal but
sluggish. CT shows diffuse cerebral edema. Next best step?
• A) Phenytoin loading
• B) Continuous EEG
• C) ICP monitor placement
• D) Therapeutic hypothermia (32–34°C)
Correct Answer: C – GCS ≤8 with abnormal CT
mandates ICP monitoring per Brain Trauma Foundation
guidelines.
3. Which finding suggests impending brain herniation?
• A) Unilateral dilated pupil
• B) Bilateral pinpoint pupils
• C) Decorticate posturing only
• D) GCS 14
Correct Answer: A – Unilateral fixed/dilated pupil
indicates uncal herniation (CN III compression).
, Page 4 of 155
4. Scenario:28-year-old,fallfromladder,GCS9,BP p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
150/90, HR 65. CT shows epidural hematoma with midline
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p. shift.Nextstep?
p. p.
• A) Hyperosmolar therapy
p. p.
• B) Emergent craniotomy
p. p.
• C) Induce coma with propofol
p. p. p. p.
• D) Repeat CT in 6 hours
p. p. p. p. p.
Correct Answer: B – Epidural hematoma with shift and
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p . altered mental status requires surgical evacuation.
p. p. p. p. p.
5. What is the target CPP range for severe TBI?
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
• A) 40–50 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• B) 60–70 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• C) 80–90 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• D) >100 mm Hg p. p. p.
Correct Answer: B – CPP 60–70 mm Hg optimizes
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p. cerebral blood flowwithout exacerbating edema.p. p. p. p. p.
,Page 2 of 155
TCAR Post-Test Exam () Actual Test;
Questions & Correct Answers, 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
1. A 45-year-old male with severe TBI has ICP 22 mm Hg and
CPP 55 mm Hg. What is the priority intervention?
• A) Increase IV fluids to raise CPP
• B) Administer mannitol 0.5–1 g/kg
• C) Elevate HOB to 90 degrees
• D) Hyperventilate to PaCO2 25 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B – Mannitol reduces ICP via osmotic
diuresis. CPP <60 with elevated ICP requires ICP
reduction. HOB 30°, not 90°. Hyperventilation is
temporary and can cause ischemia.
,Page 3 of 155
2. Scenario: Post-resuscitation GCS 7, pupils equal but
sluggish. CT shows diffuse cerebral edema. Next best step?
• A) Phenytoin loading
• B) Continuous EEG
• C) ICP monitor placement
• D) Therapeutic hypothermia (32–34°C)
Correct Answer: C – GCS ≤8 with abnormal CT
mandates ICP monitoring per Brain Trauma Foundation
guidelines.
3. Which finding suggests impending brain herniation?
• A) Unilateral dilated pupil
• B) Bilateral pinpoint pupils
• C) Decorticate posturing only
• D) GCS 14
Correct Answer: A – Unilateral fixed/dilated pupil
indicates uncal herniation (CN III compression).
, Page 4 of 155
4. Scenario:28-year-old,fallfromladder,GCS9,BP p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
150/90, HR 65. CT shows epidural hematoma with midline
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p. shift.Nextstep?
p. p.
• A) Hyperosmolar therapy
p. p.
• B) Emergent craniotomy
p. p.
• C) Induce coma with propofol
p. p. p. p.
• D) Repeat CT in 6 hours
p. p. p. p. p.
Correct Answer: B – Epidural hematoma with shift and
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p . altered mental status requires surgical evacuation.
p. p. p. p. p.
5. What is the target CPP range for severe TBI?
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
• A) 40–50 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• B) 60–70 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• C) 80–90 mm Hg
p. p. p.
• D) >100 mm Hg p. p. p.
Correct Answer: B – CPP 60–70 mm Hg optimizes
p. p. p. p. p. p. p. p.
p. cerebral blood flowwithout exacerbating edema.p. p. p. p. p.
