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NSG 533 Exam 1 Wilkes
Advanced Pharmacology
2025/2026 – Q&A Study Guide
PDF
Prepare for NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Exam 1 at
Wilkes University with this updated 2025/2026 Q&A
review. Covers pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics,
drug classifications, CYP450 interactions, cardiovascular,
endocrine, and GI medications. Includes practice
questions with answers and rationales for graduate
nursing students. Instant PDF download for exam review
and study.
1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the movement of a drug from its
site of administration into the bloodstream?
A. Metabolism
B. Distribution
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug moves from its site of
administration into the bloodstream. Metabolism, distribution, and excretion
occur after the drug has entered the systemic circulation.
2. A drug with a high first-pass effect will have which of the following
characteristics?
A. High oral bioavailability
B. Low oral bioavailability
C. No need for hepatic metabolism
D. Increased renal excretion
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Answer: B
Rationale: First-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before
it reaches systemic circulation. Drugs with a high first-pass effect have low oral
bioavailability and may require alternative routes of administration.
3. Which of the following is considered a pharmacokinetic parameter?
A. Receptor affinity
B. Therapeutic index
C. Volume of distribution
D. Efficacy
Answer: C
Rationale: Volume of distribution is a pharmacokinetic parameter that
describes the theoretical volume into which a drug distributes in the body.
Receptor affinity, therapeutic index, and efficacy are pharmacodynamic
parameters.
4. What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Stomach
Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism,
primarily through cytochrome P450 enzymes. The kidney is primarily
responsible for excretion.
5. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is involved in the metabolism of the largest
number of drugs?
A. CYP1A2
B. CYP2D6
C. CYP3A4
D. CYP2C9
Answer: C
Rationale: CYP3A4 is responsible for the metabolism of approximately 50% of
all drugs. CYP2D6, CYP2C9, and CYP1A2 metabolize a smaller percentage of
drugs.
6. A patient taking carbamazepine may experience decreased effectiveness of
warfarin due to which of the following?
A. Enzyme inhibition
B. Enzyme induction
C. Increased protein binding
D. Decreased renal excretion
Answer: B
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Rationale: Carbamazepine is a potent inducer of CYP450 enzymes, which
increases the metabolism of warfarin, leading to decreased anticoagulant
effect.
7. Which of the following drugs is a CYP450 inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenytoin
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: C
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a CYP450 inhibitor. Rifampin,
phenytoin, and carbamazepine are CYP450 inducers.
8. The therapeutic index of a drug is calculated as:
A. ED50 / TD50
B. TD50 / ED50
C. LD50 / ED50
D. ED50 / LD50
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic index is calculated as TD50 (median toxic dose) divided
by ED50 (median effective dose). A higher therapeutic index indicates a safer
drug.
9. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Less frequent monitoring
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Higher doses
D. No dose adjustments
Answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index have a small margin between
therapeutic and toxic doses, requiring therapeutic drug monitoring to ensure
safety and efficacy.
10. Which of the following describes the ability of a drug to produce a desired
effect?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Affinity
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the ability of a drug to produce a desired
therapeutic effect. Potency refers to the amount of drug needed to produce a
given effect.
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11. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal response is called:
A. Partial agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Full agonist
D. Inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: A full agonist binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biological
response. A partial agonist produces a submaximal response.
12. Which of the following is an example of a competitive antagonist?
A. Naloxone
B. Morphine
C. Albuterol
D. Diazepam
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist at opioid receptors. Morphine
is an agonist, albuterol is a beta-2 agonist, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine
agonist.
13. The term used to describe the time required for the body to eliminate 50%
of a drug is:
A. Onset of action
B. Duration of action
C. Half-life
D. Steady state
Answer: C
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug
to decrease by 50%. It determines the dosing interval and time to reach steady
state.
14. How many half-lives are required to reach steady state?
A. 2-3
B. 4-5
C. 6-7
D. 8-10
Answer: B
Rationale: It takes approximately 4-5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma
concentrations of a drug with continuous dosing.
15. Which of the following routes of administration has 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
NSG 533 Exam 1 Wilkes
Advanced Pharmacology
2025/2026 – Q&A Study Guide
Prepare for NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Exam 1 at
Wilkes University with this updated 2025/2026 Q&A
review. Covers pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics,
drug classifications, CYP450 interactions, cardiovascular,
endocrine, and GI medications. Includes practice
questions with answers and rationales for graduate
nursing students. Instant PDF download for exam review
and study.
1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the movement of a drug from its
site of administration into the bloodstream?
A. Metabolism
B. Distribution
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug moves from its site of
administration into the bloodstream. Metabolism, distribution, and excretion
occur after the drug has entered the systemic circulation.
2. A drug with a high first-pass effect will have which of the following
characteristics?
A. High oral bioavailability
B. Low oral bioavailability
C. No need for hepatic metabolism
D. Increased renal excretion
,2|Page
Answer: B
Rationale: First-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug by the liver before
it reaches systemic circulation. Drugs with a high first-pass effect have low oral
bioavailability and may require alternative routes of administration.
3. Which of the following is considered a pharmacokinetic parameter?
A. Receptor affinity
B. Therapeutic index
C. Volume of distribution
D. Efficacy
Answer: C
Rationale: Volume of distribution is a pharmacokinetic parameter that
describes the theoretical volume into which a drug distributes in the body.
Receptor affinity, therapeutic index, and efficacy are pharmacodynamic
parameters.
4. What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Stomach
Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism,
primarily through cytochrome P450 enzymes. The kidney is primarily
responsible for excretion.
5. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is involved in the metabolism of the largest
number of drugs?
A. CYP1A2
B. CYP2D6
C. CYP3A4
D. CYP2C9
Answer: C
Rationale: CYP3A4 is responsible for the metabolism of approximately 50% of
all drugs. CYP2D6, CYP2C9, and CYP1A2 metabolize a smaller percentage of
drugs.
6. A patient taking carbamazepine may experience decreased effectiveness of
warfarin due to which of the following?
A. Enzyme inhibition
B. Enzyme induction
C. Increased protein binding
D. Decreased renal excretion
Answer: B
,3|Page
Rationale: Carbamazepine is a potent inducer of CYP450 enzymes, which
increases the metabolism of warfarin, leading to decreased anticoagulant
effect.
7. Which of the following drugs is a CYP450 inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenytoin
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: C
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a CYP450 inhibitor. Rifampin,
phenytoin, and carbamazepine are CYP450 inducers.
8. The therapeutic index of a drug is calculated as:
A. ED50 / TD50
B. TD50 / ED50
C. LD50 / ED50
D. ED50 / LD50
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic index is calculated as TD50 (median toxic dose) divided
by ED50 (median effective dose). A higher therapeutic index indicates a safer
drug.
9. A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Less frequent monitoring
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Higher doses
D. No dose adjustments
Answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index have a small margin between
therapeutic and toxic doses, requiring therapeutic drug monitoring to ensure
safety and efficacy.
10. Which of the following describes the ability of a drug to produce a desired
effect?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Affinity
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the ability of a drug to produce a desired
therapeutic effect. Potency refers to the amount of drug needed to produce a
given effect.
, 4|Page
11. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a maximal response is called:
A. Partial agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Full agonist
D. Inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: A full agonist binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biological
response. A partial agonist produces a submaximal response.
12. Which of the following is an example of a competitive antagonist?
A. Naloxone
B. Morphine
C. Albuterol
D. Diazepam
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist at opioid receptors. Morphine
is an agonist, albuterol is a beta-2 agonist, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine
agonist.
13. The term used to describe the time required for the body to eliminate 50%
of a drug is:
A. Onset of action
B. Duration of action
C. Half-life
D. Steady state
Answer: C
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug
to decrease by 50%. It determines the dosing interval and time to reach steady
state.
14. How many half-lives are required to reach steady state?
A. 2-3
B. 4-5
C. 6-7
D. 8-10
Answer: B
Rationale: It takes approximately 4-5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma
concentrations of a drug with continuous dosing.
15. Which of the following routes of administration has 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
