Chamberlain Adult
Health / Medical-
Surgical Nursing
Exam
Format: NCLEX-style multiple choice | Focus: Adult Health I & II (NR-324/NR-325)
Concepts
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which laboratory value is a key diagnostic
indicator of heart failure?
A) Serum potassium
B) Creatinine
C) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
D) Cardiac troponin
Rationale: BNP is a hormone released by the ventricles in response to increased
pressure and volume overload. An elevated BNP level is a key diagnostic indicator of
heart failure .
,Question 2
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client with atrial fibrillation. Which characteristic is
expected?
A) A regular rhythm with a rate of 60-100 bpm
B) Absent P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response
C) Tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes
D) ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic atrial electrical activity, resulting
in the absence of distinct P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response .
Question 3
A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Which common side effect should
the nurse teach the client to expect?
A) Dry cough
B) Peripheral edema
C) Constipation
D) Tachycardia
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation and can lead to
dependent peripheral edema. Elevating the legs may help .
Question 4
A client with a history of heart failure reports a 4-pound weight gain in 2 days. What
should the nurse do first?
A) Restrict the client's fluid intake
B) Assess lung sounds and notify the provider
,C) Increase the diuretic dose
D) Document the finding as normal
Rationale: Rapid weight gain suggests fluid retention. The nurse should assess lung
sounds for crackles and notify the provider for further intervention .
Question 5
A client receiving continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism has a platelet
count of 80,000/mm³. What does this finding indicate?
A) Therapeutic anticoagulation
B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C) Expected response to heparin
D) Increased risk of bleeding only
Rationale: A platelet count below 100,000/mm³ may indicate HIT, a life-threatening
complication. Immediate action includes stopping heparin and initiating alternative
anticoagulation .
Section 2: Respiratory Disorders
Question 6
A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Which complication
is the client at greatest risk for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Oxygen toxicity and respiratory depression
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: High concentrations of oxygen can suppress the hypoxic respiratory drive in
COPD patients, leading to oxygen toxicity and respiratory failure .
, Question 7
A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What
does this indicate?
A) The lung has re-expanded
B) An air leak in the system
C) Normal tidaling with respiration
D) The suction is too high
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak. The
nurse should assess the system for kinks, loose connections, or a leak at the insertion
site. Intermittent bubbling is normal .
Question 8
A patient with a chest tube has an accidental disconnection from the drainage system.
What should the nurse do first?
A) Clamp the chest tube
B) Place the end of the chest tube in sterile water
C) Notify the provider
D) Reconnect the tube to the drainage system
Rationale: If the chest tube becomes disconnected, the end of the tube should be
placed in sterile water to maintain the water seal and prevent air from entering the
pleural space .
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client's respiratory status. Which finding is an early sign of
hypoxia?
Health / Medical-
Surgical Nursing
Exam
Format: NCLEX-style multiple choice | Focus: Adult Health I & II (NR-324/NR-325)
Concepts
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which laboratory value is a key diagnostic
indicator of heart failure?
A) Serum potassium
B) Creatinine
C) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
D) Cardiac troponin
Rationale: BNP is a hormone released by the ventricles in response to increased
pressure and volume overload. An elevated BNP level is a key diagnostic indicator of
heart failure .
,Question 2
A nurse is reviewing the ECG of a client with atrial fibrillation. Which characteristic is
expected?
A) A regular rhythm with a rate of 60-100 bpm
B) Absent P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response
C) Tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes
D) ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic atrial electrical activity, resulting
in the absence of distinct P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response .
Question 3
A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Which common side effect should
the nurse teach the client to expect?
A) Dry cough
B) Peripheral edema
C) Constipation
D) Tachycardia
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation and can lead to
dependent peripheral edema. Elevating the legs may help .
Question 4
A client with a history of heart failure reports a 4-pound weight gain in 2 days. What
should the nurse do first?
A) Restrict the client's fluid intake
B) Assess lung sounds and notify the provider
,C) Increase the diuretic dose
D) Document the finding as normal
Rationale: Rapid weight gain suggests fluid retention. The nurse should assess lung
sounds for crackles and notify the provider for further intervention .
Question 5
A client receiving continuous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism has a platelet
count of 80,000/mm³. What does this finding indicate?
A) Therapeutic anticoagulation
B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C) Expected response to heparin
D) Increased risk of bleeding only
Rationale: A platelet count below 100,000/mm³ may indicate HIT, a life-threatening
complication. Immediate action includes stopping heparin and initiating alternative
anticoagulation .
Section 2: Respiratory Disorders
Question 6
A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Which complication
is the client at greatest risk for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Oxygen toxicity and respiratory depression
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: High concentrations of oxygen can suppress the hypoxic respiratory drive in
COPD patients, leading to oxygen toxicity and respiratory failure .
, Question 7
A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What
does this indicate?
A) The lung has re-expanded
B) An air leak in the system
C) Normal tidaling with respiration
D) The suction is too high
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak. The
nurse should assess the system for kinks, loose connections, or a leak at the insertion
site. Intermittent bubbling is normal .
Question 8
A patient with a chest tube has an accidental disconnection from the drainage system.
What should the nurse do first?
A) Clamp the chest tube
B) Place the end of the chest tube in sterile water
C) Notify the provider
D) Reconnect the tube to the drainage system
Rationale: If the chest tube becomes disconnected, the end of the tube should be
placed in sterile water to maintain the water seal and prevent air from entering the
pleural space .
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client's respiratory status. Which finding is an early sign of
hypoxia?
