NURS 5355 Final
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
1. Which assessment tool is used to determine whether a patient may have a difficult
intubation?
A. MOANS
B. Mallampati Classification
C. LEMONS
D. Sellick's Maneuver
Rationale: LEMONS is a mnemonic used to assess predictors of difficult endotracheal intubation,
including Look externally, Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule, Mallampati, Obstruction, and Neck mobility.
2. Which classification assesses the size of the tongue in relation to the oral cavity to predict
difficulty with intubation?
A. LEMONS
B. Mallampati Classification Score
C. MOANS
D. Glasgow Coma Scale
Rationale: The Mallampati classification evaluates the visibility of oral and pharyngeal
structures and helps predict the difficulty of direct laryngoscopy and intubation.
3. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to endotracheal intubation?
A. Limited neck mobility
B. A Mallampati Class III airway
C. Total upper airway obstruction or loss of oropharyngeal landmarks from trauma or burns
D. Facial edema
,Rationale: Total upper airway obstruction or destruction/loss of normal oropharyngeal
landmarks from severe trauma or burns can make conventional endotracheal intubation
impossible.
4. What maneuver applies pressure to the cricoid cartilage to compress the esophagus and
help prevent regurgitation during intubation?
A. BURP maneuver
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Sellick's Maneuver
D. Valsalva maneuver
Rationale: Sellick's maneuver involves applying pressure over the cricoid cartilage with the
traditional goal of compressing the esophagus and reducing passive regurgitation during
intubation.
5. During oral endotracheal intubation, the laryngoscope blade is inserted using which hand
and on which side of the mouth?
A. Right hand; right side of the mouth
B. Right hand; left side of the mouth
C. Left hand; right side of the mouth to displace the tongue to the left
D. Left hand; left side of the mouth
Rationale: The laryngoscope is held in the left hand and inserted on the right side of the mouth,
allowing the blade to move the tongue toward the left and improve visualization.
6. Which position helps align the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes during intubation?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Supine position with the neck fully extended
C. Lateral recovery position
D. Sniffing position
Rationale: The sniffing position traditionally helps align the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes
and facilitates visualization of the glottic opening during intubation.
7. What is the primary goal of preoxygenation before endotracheal intubation?
A. Decrease arterial PaO₂
B. Increase nitrogen concentration in the lungs
C. Maximize arterial PaO₂ and denitrogenate the functional residual capacity
D. Increase carbon dioxide retention
, Rationale: Preoxygenation replaces nitrogen in the functional residual capacity with oxygen,
maximizing oxygen reserves and increasing the time before oxygen desaturation during apnea.
8. In a healthy adult, effective preoxygenation can maximize the time available for intubation
without oxygen desaturation to approximately:
A. 30–60 seconds
B. 2–3 minutes
C. 7–9 minutes
D. 15–20 minutes
Rationale: Adequate preoxygenation can provide a healthy adult with approximately 7–9
minutes of oxygen reserve before significant desaturation during apnea, although this varies
with clinical circumstances.
9. Room air is composed primarily of approximately:
A. 50% oxygen and 50% nitrogen
B. 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen
C. 78% oxygen and 21% nitrogen
D. 30% oxygen and 70% carbon dioxide
Rationale: Atmospheric room air contains approximately 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen, with
the remaining fraction consisting primarily of other gases.
10. Which paralytic has a rapid onset and short duration of action and may increase serum
potassium levels?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a rapid onset of
approximately 30–45 seconds and a short duration of approximately 5–10 minutes. It can cause
an increase in serum potassium.
11. During CPR, rescue breaths are considered less important because they:
A. Always cause hypoxemia
B. Prevent oxygen from entering the lungs
C. Interrupt chest compressions and increase intrathoracic pressure
D. Cause immediate airway obstruction
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
1. Which assessment tool is used to determine whether a patient may have a difficult
intubation?
A. MOANS
B. Mallampati Classification
C. LEMONS
D. Sellick's Maneuver
Rationale: LEMONS is a mnemonic used to assess predictors of difficult endotracheal intubation,
including Look externally, Evaluate the 3-3-2 rule, Mallampati, Obstruction, and Neck mobility.
2. Which classification assesses the size of the tongue in relation to the oral cavity to predict
difficulty with intubation?
A. LEMONS
B. Mallampati Classification Score
C. MOANS
D. Glasgow Coma Scale
Rationale: The Mallampati classification evaluates the visibility of oral and pharyngeal
structures and helps predict the difficulty of direct laryngoscopy and intubation.
3. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to endotracheal intubation?
A. Limited neck mobility
B. A Mallampati Class III airway
C. Total upper airway obstruction or loss of oropharyngeal landmarks from trauma or burns
D. Facial edema
,Rationale: Total upper airway obstruction or destruction/loss of normal oropharyngeal
landmarks from severe trauma or burns can make conventional endotracheal intubation
impossible.
4. What maneuver applies pressure to the cricoid cartilage to compress the esophagus and
help prevent regurgitation during intubation?
A. BURP maneuver
B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
C. Sellick's Maneuver
D. Valsalva maneuver
Rationale: Sellick's maneuver involves applying pressure over the cricoid cartilage with the
traditional goal of compressing the esophagus and reducing passive regurgitation during
intubation.
5. During oral endotracheal intubation, the laryngoscope blade is inserted using which hand
and on which side of the mouth?
A. Right hand; right side of the mouth
B. Right hand; left side of the mouth
C. Left hand; right side of the mouth to displace the tongue to the left
D. Left hand; left side of the mouth
Rationale: The laryngoscope is held in the left hand and inserted on the right side of the mouth,
allowing the blade to move the tongue toward the left and improve visualization.
6. Which position helps align the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes during intubation?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Supine position with the neck fully extended
C. Lateral recovery position
D. Sniffing position
Rationale: The sniffing position traditionally helps align the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes
and facilitates visualization of the glottic opening during intubation.
7. What is the primary goal of preoxygenation before endotracheal intubation?
A. Decrease arterial PaO₂
B. Increase nitrogen concentration in the lungs
C. Maximize arterial PaO₂ and denitrogenate the functional residual capacity
D. Increase carbon dioxide retention
, Rationale: Preoxygenation replaces nitrogen in the functional residual capacity with oxygen,
maximizing oxygen reserves and increasing the time before oxygen desaturation during apnea.
8. In a healthy adult, effective preoxygenation can maximize the time available for intubation
without oxygen desaturation to approximately:
A. 30–60 seconds
B. 2–3 minutes
C. 7–9 minutes
D. 15–20 minutes
Rationale: Adequate preoxygenation can provide a healthy adult with approximately 7–9
minutes of oxygen reserve before significant desaturation during apnea, although this varies
with clinical circumstances.
9. Room air is composed primarily of approximately:
A. 50% oxygen and 50% nitrogen
B. 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen
C. 78% oxygen and 21% nitrogen
D. 30% oxygen and 70% carbon dioxide
Rationale: Atmospheric room air contains approximately 21% oxygen and 78% nitrogen, with
the remaining fraction consisting primarily of other gases.
10. Which paralytic has a rapid onset and short duration of action and may increase serum
potassium levels?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a rapid onset of
approximately 30–45 seconds and a short duration of approximately 5–10 minutes. It can cause
an increase in serum potassium.
11. During CPR, rescue breaths are considered less important because they:
A. Always cause hypoxemia
B. Prevent oxygen from entering the lungs
C. Interrupt chest compressions and increase intrathoracic pressure
D. Cause immediate airway obstruction
