NSG 552 Exam 1 – Wilkes Psychopharmacology
(2026 update )100 Questions with Answers &
Rationales
1. What is the definition of pharmacokinetics? A. The study of what drugs do to
the body
B. The study of what the body does to drugs
C. The study of drug-receptor binding
D. The study of drug efficacy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics refers to absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion (ADME) — what the body does to a drug. Pharmacodynamics is what
the drug does to the body.
2. What is the definition of pharmacodynamics? A. The study of drug metabolism
in the liver
B. The study of drug excretion by the kidneys
C. The study of what drugs do to the body at target sites
D. The study of drug absorption in the GI tract
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes drug actions at receptors, ion channels,
enzymes, and carrier proteins/reuptake pumps.
3. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the conversion of a drug into
metabolites, primarily in the liver? A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolism (biotransformation) occurs mainly in the liver via
cytochrome P450 enzymes, converting drugs into more water-soluble metabolites
for excretion.
4. The cytochrome P450 enzyme system is primarily responsible for which
pharmacokinetic process? A. Drug absorption
B. Drug distribution
C. Drug metabolism
D. Drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CYP450 system in the liver is the major site of drug metabolism.
Inhibition or induction of these enzymes causes clinically significant drug-drug
interactions.
5. A drug with high protein binding will have which characteristic? A. Rapid
onset of action
B. Reduced free (active) drug available
C. Increased renal excretion
D. Decreased half-life
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Highly protein-bound drugs remain bound to albumin and are inactive.
Only the unbound (free) fraction is pharmacologically active and available for
metabolism/excretion.
6. Which term describes the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of
the maximum response? A. Affinity
B. Efficacy
C. Potency (EC50)
D. Bioavailability
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EC50 is the concentration producing 50% of maximal effect, a measure
of drug potency. Lower EC50 = higher potency.
7. What is the primary difference between a drug's affinity and its efficacy? A.
Affinity is the strength of binding; efficacy is the ability to produce a response
B. Affinity is the speed of onset; efficacy is the duration of action
C. Affinity is the drug's half-life; efficacy is its protein binding
D. Affinity and efficacy are synonymous
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Affinity describes how tightly a drug binds to its receptor. Efficacy
(intrinsic activity) describes the magnitude of response the drug produces once
bound.
8. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological effect is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Allosteric modulator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist activates the receptor and produces a response. An
antagonist binds but produces no response, blocking agonist action.
9. Which neurotransmitter is primarily targeted by Selective Serotonin Reuptake
Inhibitors (SSRIs)? A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Norepinephrine
D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SSRIs specifically inhibit the reuptake of serotonin (5-HT) into the
presynaptic neuron, increasing synaptic serotonin availability.
, 10. Which neurotransmitter's depletion is hypothesized to be the primary cause
of Parkinson's disease symptoms? A. Serotonin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Dopamine
D. Glutamate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Parkinson's symptoms result from loss of dopaminergic neurons in the
substantia nigra. This is why D2-blocking antipsychotics cause Parkinsonian-like
side effects.
11. Psychosis is considered the core feature of which disorder? A. Major
depressive disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. PTSD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While psychosis can occur in bipolar disorder and major depression
with psychotic features, it is the core feature of schizophrenia and other
schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
12. Which symptom cluster is described as "positive symptoms" of
schizophrenia? A. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and poverty of speech
B. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking
C. Cognitive impairment and lack of motivation
D. Anhedonia and avolition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive symptoms are excesses or distortions of normal function
(hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behavior). Negative symptoms
represent deficits (flat affect, withdrawal).
(2026 update )100 Questions with Answers &
Rationales
1. What is the definition of pharmacokinetics? A. The study of what drugs do to
the body
B. The study of what the body does to drugs
C. The study of drug-receptor binding
D. The study of drug efficacy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics refers to absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion (ADME) — what the body does to a drug. Pharmacodynamics is what
the drug does to the body.
2. What is the definition of pharmacodynamics? A. The study of drug metabolism
in the liver
B. The study of drug excretion by the kidneys
C. The study of what drugs do to the body at target sites
D. The study of drug absorption in the GI tract
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes drug actions at receptors, ion channels,
enzymes, and carrier proteins/reuptake pumps.
3. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the conversion of a drug into
metabolites, primarily in the liver? A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolism (biotransformation) occurs mainly in the liver via
cytochrome P450 enzymes, converting drugs into more water-soluble metabolites
for excretion.
4. The cytochrome P450 enzyme system is primarily responsible for which
pharmacokinetic process? A. Drug absorption
B. Drug distribution
C. Drug metabolism
D. Drug excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The CYP450 system in the liver is the major site of drug metabolism.
Inhibition or induction of these enzymes causes clinically significant drug-drug
interactions.
5. A drug with high protein binding will have which characteristic? A. Rapid
onset of action
B. Reduced free (active) drug available
C. Increased renal excretion
D. Decreased half-life
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Highly protein-bound drugs remain bound to albumin and are inactive.
Only the unbound (free) fraction is pharmacologically active and available for
metabolism/excretion.
6. Which term describes the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of
the maximum response? A. Affinity
B. Efficacy
C. Potency (EC50)
D. Bioavailability
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EC50 is the concentration producing 50% of maximal effect, a measure
of drug potency. Lower EC50 = higher potency.
7. What is the primary difference between a drug's affinity and its efficacy? A.
Affinity is the strength of binding; efficacy is the ability to produce a response
B. Affinity is the speed of onset; efficacy is the duration of action
C. Affinity is the drug's half-life; efficacy is its protein binding
D. Affinity and efficacy are synonymous
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Affinity describes how tightly a drug binds to its receptor. Efficacy
(intrinsic activity) describes the magnitude of response the drug produces once
bound.
8. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological effect is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist
C. Inverse agonist
D. Allosteric modulator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist activates the receptor and produces a response. An
antagonist binds but produces no response, blocking agonist action.
9. Which neurotransmitter is primarily targeted by Selective Serotonin Reuptake
Inhibitors (SSRIs)? A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Norepinephrine
D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SSRIs specifically inhibit the reuptake of serotonin (5-HT) into the
presynaptic neuron, increasing synaptic serotonin availability.
, 10. Which neurotransmitter's depletion is hypothesized to be the primary cause
of Parkinson's disease symptoms? A. Serotonin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Dopamine
D. Glutamate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Parkinson's symptoms result from loss of dopaminergic neurons in the
substantia nigra. This is why D2-blocking antipsychotics cause Parkinsonian-like
side effects.
11. Psychosis is considered the core feature of which disorder? A. Major
depressive disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. PTSD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While psychosis can occur in bipolar disorder and major depression
with psychotic features, it is the core feature of schizophrenia and other
schizophrenia spectrum disorders.
12. Which symptom cluster is described as "positive symptoms" of
schizophrenia? A. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and poverty of speech
B. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking
C. Cognitive impairment and lack of motivation
D. Anhedonia and avolition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive symptoms are excesses or distortions of normal function
(hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behavior). Negative symptoms
represent deficits (flat affect, withdrawal).
