NR607 CEA Exam Prep COMPLETE 200
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Recommendation for lipid check in adolescent with type 1 DM?
2 years
10 years
5 years
1 year - Correct Answer :1 year
Rationale: Remember than with pediatric patients with diabetes, the easiest way to remember the evaluation
schedule is to perform lipid checks is with annual physicals.
An older adult with diabetes mellitus presents with leg cramps. She states that the cramps as worst when
walking to the supermarket. If she stops to rest, the pain subsides. The nurse practitioner knows that this patient
needs a workup for:
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*Benign nocturnal leg cramps
*Popliteal aneurism
*Intermittent claudication
*Deep vein thrombosis - Correct Answer :Intermittent claudication
An adult female who recently returned from a business trip to Japan presents for a recheck appointment. The
only remarkable laboratory result is for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), at 0.3 microunits/mL (normal = 0.4-6
microunits/mL). The patient reports that her neck hurts; examination reveals thyroid tenderness. Which of the
following laboratory tests should the nurse practitioner order now?
*Triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (FT4)
*Triiodothyronine (T3) and free triiodothyronine (FT3)
*Triiodothyronine (T3) only
*Triiodothyronine (T3) resin uptake assay - Correct Answer :Triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (FT4)
Rationale: The patient has a low TSH which when paired with elevated T3 and T4, suggest hyperthyroidism. The
next steps for this patient are to check the T3 and T4 levels which would presumably be high and clinically
correlate the findings for a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism.
A patient has a 2 cm pituitary adenoma on MRI. Deficiency of one of the pituitary hormones can cause
immediate hemodynamic instability and has a risk of death. Which is the most critical hormone deficiency to rule
out?
*FSH/LH
*ACTH
*Prolactin
*TSH - Correct Answer :ACTH
Rationale: Adrenal crisis is a life-threatening emergency and needs to be ruled out. Unrecognized/untreated
adrenal insufficiency can result in death. ACTH is the pituitary hormone responsible for cortisol production.
All the following are symptoms of hypocalcemia except:
*Tetany
*Visual field deficits
*Paresthesia in fingers and toes
*Abdominal pain - Correct Answer :Visual field deficits
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Rationale: Visual field deficits is a potential symptom of pituitary adenoma. All other are symptoms related to
hypocalcemia.
A 39-year-old male with type 1 DM is seen in the urgent care after a recent hospitalization for DKA. Treated with
IV fluids, IV insulin, and potassium correction, His BS decreases to 120 mg/dL and is transitioned from IV insulin to
Sub Q. After 6 hours he begins vomiting and ABG is done: pH 7.19, CO2 13, K+ 5.5, glucose 180. Which of the
following is the most likely reason for persistent acidosis?
*Premature discontinuation of insulin drip
*Lack of absorption of Sub Q insulin
*Failure to correct hyperkalemia
*Failure to give bicarbonate - Correct Answer :Premature discontinuation of insulin drip
Rationale: Glucose is only one of the parameters that needs to be followed in DKA, it takes longer for ketones to
clear than glucose to normalize, insulin drip should be continued until ketonemia has resolved and the anion gap
has closed, if IV insulin is discontinued prematurely the patient may have rebound acidosis, bicarbonate
replacement has been controversial in DKA.
Which of the following is at highest risk for DMII?
*An adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
*A 50-year-old black female with a BMI of 23 who walks daily at least 30 minutes
*A 75-year-old Caucasian male with a BMI of 25 who is sedentary
*A 62-year-old Hispanic male with a BMI of 24 who works as a day laborer - Correct Answer :An adult woman
with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
Rationale: Of these options, an adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs is the
most likely due to their increased BMI and the large size of the baby. giving birth to a large baby, also known as a
large-for-gestational-age (LGA) baby, can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. Women who
give birth to a LGA baby are 10% more likely to develop DMII 10-14 years after pregnancy compared to women
who give birth to babies of average gestational age (AGA). This increased risk is even after adjusting for other
risk factors, such as age, obesity, high blood pressure, and family history of diabetes.
A 64-year-old female with a past medical history significant for hepatitis C and Cirrhosis presents to your office
with abdominal pain and distention. Exam reveals tense ascites. Which is indicated for treatment?
*Midodrine 10mg PO TID
*Labetalol 200mg PO BID
*Transfer to the hospital for large Volume paracentesis
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*Furosemide 40mg PO BID - Correct Answer :Transfer to the hospital for large Volume paracentesis
Rationale: Large Volume Paracentesis will provide immediate relief for the patient, it will also allow for testing of
fluid for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.
A 64-year-old female with a past medical history significant for hepatitis C and Cirrhosis presents to the urgent
care with abdominal pain and distention. Exam reveals tense ascites. After transfer to the emergency
department, large volume paracentesis was performed. What regimen should you place patient on for further
maintenance of her ascites?
*Midodrine 10mg TID
*Labetalol 200mg BID
*Furosemide 40mg BID
*Flagyl 500mg PO TID - Correct Answer :Furosemide 40mg BID
Rationale: Furosemide is typically prescribed for a patient for continued maintenance of ascites once a
paracentesis is performed to help reduce chances of recurrence
A 70-year-old patient presents to the clinic with dyspnea, palpitations, and fatigue. The patient reports a 2-week
history of blackened stools, which the patient attributes to drinking berry juice. Assessment reveals vital signs of
BP = 110/60, P = 100, R = 24; Hgb = 4.5 g/dL; Hct = 16%. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
*Order a complete blood count (CBC) with differential.
*Send to the emergency room.
*Order serum iron, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), and ferritin.
*Refer to a gastroenterologist. - Correct Answer :Send to the emergency room.
Rationale: This patient is experiencing a GI bleed and is in need of emergency treatment due to their
considerably low hemoglobin.
A patient states that his girlfriend was recently diagnosed with hepatitis, and he tests positive for hepatitis C. He
expresses fear of the diagnosis because his father died after a liver transplantation. Which existing information in
the patient's history is the most significant factor in the progression of liver failure?
*chronic alcohol intake
*Lack of fluid intake
*intermittent acetaminophen intake
*Lack of exercise - Correct Answer :chronic alcohol intake
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