NR607 CEA Exam 3 Prep COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 17-year-old inpatient client refuses to take prescribed antipsychotic medication. The staff nurse has provided
extensive education on the need for continued medication. Which is the most appropriate next step for the
PMHNP?
A. administer the medication mixed into food
B. ask the client to explain the reasons for refusal
C. obtain consent for parenteral administration from the client's parents
D. document the client's refusal –
Correct Answer :B. ask the client to explain the reasons for refusal
P 1
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Rationale: A 17-year-old should be engaged directly in treatment decisions whenever possible, even when a
parent or guardian has legal authority for aspects of care. Exploring the reason for refusal can uncover adverse
effects, fears, misunderstanding, or preferences and is ethically preferable to concealing medication in food or
moving immediately to coercive administration.
Which client is most likely to experience complex PTSD?
A. A girl who witnessed a man hit her mother once before the girl and her mother moved out of the man's house
B. A college student who was sexually assaulted at a fraternity party
C. An immigrant whose passport and money was taken by her employer when she agreed to work in his massage
parlor
D. A veteran who served in the Army for 17 years as an accounts manager
- Correct Answer :C. An immigrant whose passport and money was taken by her employer when she agreed to
work in his massage parlor
Rationale: Complex PTSD is most strongly associated with prolonged, repeated, difficult-to-escape interpersonal
trauma. Confiscation of an immigrant worker's passport and money in a coercive massage-parlor setting
suggests trafficking and chronic exploitation, making this a more characteristic complex-trauma exposure than
the single-event traumas or noncombat military role described in the other choices.
Which is considered a psychiatric emergency?
A. a client experiencing her first manic episode
B. a client with active auditory hallucinations
C. decompensation of a client with borderline personality disorder
D. a client with neurocognitive decline who can no longer feed herself - Correct Answer :B. a client experiencing
active auditory hallucinations
Review note: Exam-bank answer retained; hallucinations alone do not always constitute a psychiatric emergency
without additional safety or functional concerns.
P 2
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Rationale: The exam bank treats active auditory hallucinations as a psychiatric emergency because acute
psychosis can involve impaired reality testing, command content, unsafe behavior, or inability to care for oneself
and therefore requires prompt risk assessment. Clinically, hallucinations alone are not automatically an
emergency; urgency depends on content, associated intent, behavior, medical causes, and the client's ability to
remain safe.
A 16-year-old boy is consistently on the honor roll at school. Neither his school nor his community offers
extracurricular activities, but he plans to apply to prestigious colleges when he graduates from high school. His
parents believe that he should get a job immediately after graduation as they cannot help him financially, and
they believe college is a "waste of time." In which category does the boy have the most protective factors
against perpetrating violence?
A. society
B. individual
C. family
D. community - Correct Answer :B. individual
Rationale: The strongest protective factors described are individual factors: strong academic achievement,
future orientation, and a clear goal of attending college. The family is not providing educational encouragement
or financial support, and the school/community lack extracurricular opportunities, so the boy's personal
strengths are the most prominent protective category.
A client presents with hand tremor and confusion. The client reports having a "stomach bug" last week with
vomiting and diarrhea. She states she takes a "psych" medication but cannot remember what it is called. Which
medication should the PMHNP suspect as a cause of the client's symptoms?
A. lithium
B. clozapine
C. bupropion
D. aripiprazole - Correct Answer :A. lithium
Rationale: Lithium is cleared by the kidneys, and dehydration or sodium loss from vomiting and diarrhea can raise
serum lithium concentrations. Tremor and confusion are classic neurologic signs of lithium toxicity, making
lithium the medication that should be suspected first.
P 3
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Which is a common factor found in those who perpetrate child sexual abuse?
A. high IQ
B. high IQ
C. exposure to sexually explicit behavior at an early age
D. low economic status - Correct Answer :C. exposure to sexually explicit behavior at an early age
Rationale: Early exposure to sexualized behavior or sexual victimization is recognized as one potential
developmental risk factor among some people who later perpetrate child sexual abuse. It is not deterministic,
but it is more relevant to the question than intelligence level or low economic status, neither of which is a
defining common factor.
A client presents to the emergency department with sudden vision loss. The attending physician finds no
immediate medical cause. Which finding best supports a diagnosis of functional neurological symptom disorder?
A. The client does not appear distressed by the vision changes
B. The client has a history of borderline personality disorder
C. The client is able to touch his fingers to his nose
D. The client has been drinking alcohol - Correct Answer :A. The client does not appear distressed by the vision
changes.
Rationale: The answer reflects the classic exam concept of la belle indifference, in which a person with a
functional neurologic symptom may appear unexpectedly unconcerned about a dramatic deficit. Clinically, lack
of distress is neither required nor diagnostic by itself; functional neurologic symptom disorder is established by
positive findings showing incompatibility with recognized neurologic disease rather than simply by a normal
workup.
A client reports intermittent heart palpitations for several months. Cardiac testing is normal. He has stopped
exercising due to fear of a heart attack and frequently seeks reassurance online. Which diagnosis best fits this
presentation?
A. Factitious disorder
P 4