• NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
NR607 CEA Exam 1 Prep COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A client is switching from oral aripiprazole 15 mg to intramuscular aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg monthly. Which
instruction should the PMHNP provide to the client regarding taking oral aripiprazole after the first injection?
A. continue to take oral medication for 14 days and then discontinue
B. continue to take oral medication for 7 days and then discontinue
C. discontinue the oral medication immediately
D. continue to take oral medication for 21 days and then discontinue –
Correct Answer :D. continue to take oral medication for 21 days and then discontinue
P 1
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Review note: The 21-day oral overlap is retained; the dose conversion stated in the question is inconsistent with
standard aripiprazole lauroxil dosing.
Rationale: Aripiprazole lauroxil requires an initiation strategy that provides adequate aripiprazole exposure while
the long-acting injection begins releasing medication. One approved approach is to continue oral aripiprazole for
21 days after the first ARISTADA injection; the question's stated oral-to-LAI dose conversion is inconsistent, but
the 21-day overlap itself is correct.
A client with chronic traumatic encephalopathy presents with memory loss. Which medication is most
appropriate?
A. donepezil
B. bupropion
C. armodafinil
D. amantadine –
Correct Answer :D. amantadine
Rationale: Amantadine has been used symptomatically after traumatic brain injury to target arousal, attention,
initiation, and some cognitive complaints, which is the rationale the exam bank applies to memory loss in CTE.
There is no approved medication that reverses chronic traumatic encephalopathy, and evidence for specific
cognitive medications in CTE remains limited, so treatment is individualized and symptom-focused.
Which is a barrier to the use of transcranial magnetic stimulation?
A. Treatment may be cost prohibitive
B. Treatment may not be used for clients with a seizure disorder
C. Daily treatment sessions are required for several weeks
D. Treatment may not be used for clients with an adverse reaction to anesthesia - Correct Answer :A. Treatment
may be cost prohibitive
P 2
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Review note: Exam-bank answer retained; daily sessions for several weeks can also be a practical barrier to TMS.
Rationale: Cost and insurance coverage can limit access to a full course of transcranial magnetic stimulation,
making cost a legitimate barrier. TMS does not require anesthesia, and a seizure disorder is not an absolute
universal prohibition, although seizure risk must be assessed; as the existing review note states, the need for
frequent sessions over several weeks is also a real logistical barrier.
A client presents with muscle rigidity, drooling, and high blood pressure. Which medication taken by the client
would help direct the PMHNP to the cause of symptoms?
A. olanzapine
B. lithium
C. carbamazepine
D. sertraline - Correct Answer :A. olanzapine
Rationale: Olanzapine is a dopamine-blocking antipsychotic and can precipitate neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Muscle rigidity, drooling, and autonomic instability such as hypertension fit NMS far better than the typical
toxicities associated with lithium, carbamazepine, or sertraline.
Which is a common cause of death in clients with chronic schizophrenia?
A. alcohol overdose
B. neglect
C. cardiovascular disease
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Correct Answer :C. cardiovascular disease
Rationale: People with chronic schizophrenia have markedly elevated cardiovascular morbidity and mortality
related to factors such as smoking, metabolic disease, medication effects, reduced physical activity, and
disparities in preventive medical care. Cardiovascular disease therefore contributes substantially to premature
death in this population.
P 3
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
A client complains of hearing voices talking to her. The differential diagnosis created by the PMHNP includes
schizophrenia and dissociative identity disorder. Which additional information would be most likely to indicate a
diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A. The client is 12 years old with a prolonged history of sexual abuse
B. The client has symptoms of avolition and flat affect
C. The client endorses four distinct voices that speak at different times
D. One of the voices the client hears identifies as a six-year-old child - Correct Answer :B. The client has
symptoms of avolition and flat affect
Rationale: Avolition and flat affect are negative symptoms that strongly support schizophrenia. Hearing multiple
internal voices or voices associated with different ages or identities can occur in dissociative identity disorder, so
the presence of classic negative symptoms is the more discriminating clue for schizophrenia.
A client presents after diagnosis with somatic symptom disorder. Which treatment would the PMHNP most likely
recommend?
A. cognitive behavior therapy
B. biofeedback
C. atypical antipsychotic
D. tricyclic antidepressant - Correct Answer :A. cognitive behavior therapy
Rationale: Cognitive behavioral therapy helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts, symptom-
focused attention, reassurance-seeking patterns, and behaviors that reinforce somatic distress. The goal is
improved functioning and coping rather than proving that symptoms are 'not real.'
The PMHNP receives a consult to see a client admitted to the medical unit for atrial fibrillation with active suicidal
thoughts. The client is not medically stable. Which is the most appropriate recommendation for the client?
A. immediate transfer to the psychiatric inpatient unit
B. transfer to a private isolation room on the medical unit
C. every 15-minute checks
P 4
NR607 CEA Exam 1 Prep COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A client is switching from oral aripiprazole 15 mg to intramuscular aripiprazole lauroxil 441 mg monthly. Which
instruction should the PMHNP provide to the client regarding taking oral aripiprazole after the first injection?
A. continue to take oral medication for 14 days and then discontinue
B. continue to take oral medication for 7 days and then discontinue
C. discontinue the oral medication immediately
D. continue to take oral medication for 21 days and then discontinue –
Correct Answer :D. continue to take oral medication for 21 days and then discontinue
P 1
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Review note: The 21-day oral overlap is retained; the dose conversion stated in the question is inconsistent with
standard aripiprazole lauroxil dosing.
Rationale: Aripiprazole lauroxil requires an initiation strategy that provides adequate aripiprazole exposure while
the long-acting injection begins releasing medication. One approved approach is to continue oral aripiprazole for
21 days after the first ARISTADA injection; the question's stated oral-to-LAI dose conversion is inconsistent, but
the 21-day overlap itself is correct.
A client with chronic traumatic encephalopathy presents with memory loss. Which medication is most
appropriate?
A. donepezil
B. bupropion
C. armodafinil
D. amantadine –
Correct Answer :D. amantadine
Rationale: Amantadine has been used symptomatically after traumatic brain injury to target arousal, attention,
initiation, and some cognitive complaints, which is the rationale the exam bank applies to memory loss in CTE.
There is no approved medication that reverses chronic traumatic encephalopathy, and evidence for specific
cognitive medications in CTE remains limited, so treatment is individualized and symptom-focused.
Which is a barrier to the use of transcranial magnetic stimulation?
A. Treatment may be cost prohibitive
B. Treatment may not be used for clients with a seizure disorder
C. Daily treatment sessions are required for several weeks
D. Treatment may not be used for clients with an adverse reaction to anesthesia - Correct Answer :A. Treatment
may be cost prohibitive
P 2
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
Review note: Exam-bank answer retained; daily sessions for several weeks can also be a practical barrier to TMS.
Rationale: Cost and insurance coverage can limit access to a full course of transcranial magnetic stimulation,
making cost a legitimate barrier. TMS does not require anesthesia, and a seizure disorder is not an absolute
universal prohibition, although seizure risk must be assessed; as the existing review note states, the need for
frequent sessions over several weeks is also a real logistical barrier.
A client presents with muscle rigidity, drooling, and high blood pressure. Which medication taken by the client
would help direct the PMHNP to the cause of symptoms?
A. olanzapine
B. lithium
C. carbamazepine
D. sertraline - Correct Answer :A. olanzapine
Rationale: Olanzapine is a dopamine-blocking antipsychotic and can precipitate neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Muscle rigidity, drooling, and autonomic instability such as hypertension fit NMS far better than the typical
toxicities associated with lithium, carbamazepine, or sertraline.
Which is a common cause of death in clients with chronic schizophrenia?
A. alcohol overdose
B. neglect
C. cardiovascular disease
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Correct Answer :C. cardiovascular disease
Rationale: People with chronic schizophrenia have markedly elevated cardiovascular morbidity and mortality
related to factors such as smoking, metabolic disease, medication effects, reduced physical activity, and
disparities in preventive medical care. Cardiovascular disease therefore contributes substantially to premature
death in this population.
P 3
, • NR607 CEA Exam 09/09/2026
A client complains of hearing voices talking to her. The differential diagnosis created by the PMHNP includes
schizophrenia and dissociative identity disorder. Which additional information would be most likely to indicate a
diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A. The client is 12 years old with a prolonged history of sexual abuse
B. The client has symptoms of avolition and flat affect
C. The client endorses four distinct voices that speak at different times
D. One of the voices the client hears identifies as a six-year-old child - Correct Answer :B. The client has
symptoms of avolition and flat affect
Rationale: Avolition and flat affect are negative symptoms that strongly support schizophrenia. Hearing multiple
internal voices or voices associated with different ages or identities can occur in dissociative identity disorder, so
the presence of classic negative symptoms is the more discriminating clue for schizophrenia.
A client presents after diagnosis with somatic symptom disorder. Which treatment would the PMHNP most likely
recommend?
A. cognitive behavior therapy
B. biofeedback
C. atypical antipsychotic
D. tricyclic antidepressant - Correct Answer :A. cognitive behavior therapy
Rationale: Cognitive behavioral therapy helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts, symptom-
focused attention, reassurance-seeking patterns, and behaviors that reinforce somatic distress. The goal is
improved functioning and coping rather than proving that symptoms are 'not real.'
The PMHNP receives a consult to see a client admitted to the medical unit for atrial fibrillation with active suicidal
thoughts. The client is not medically stable. Which is the most appropriate recommendation for the client?
A. immediate transfer to the psychiatric inpatient unit
B. transfer to a private isolation room on the medical unit
C. every 15-minute checks
P 4
