EXAM
CCRN PRACTICE EXAM 2 PREP NEW 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) WITH RATIONALES |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 22-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit after a motor vehicle collision. The emergency department
nurse reports that he was unconscious at the scene of the accident, but he is now alert and oriented. Skull films
show a linear fracture of the right temporal bone. He is at significant risk for:
P 1
, • CCRN PRACTICE 09/09/2026
EXAM
A.
scalp hematoma.
B.
subdural hematoma.
C.
epidural hematoma.
D.
intracerebral hematoma. –
Correct Answer :C. epidural hematoma.
Linear fractures of the temporal bone frequently disrupt the middle meningeal artery and cause epidural
hematoma. Patients with an epidural hematoma classically present with a short period of unconsciousness
followed by a lucid interval and then rapid deterioration. An epidural hematoma is usually caused by arterial
bleeding.
A patient is admitted to the ICU after sustaining a concussion and blunt abdominal trauma to the right upper
quadrant in a domestic dispute. The patient's vital signs are BP 145/86 mm Hg, pulse 86 beats/min, respiration 15
breaths/min, and temperature 98.8° F. The nurse is monitoring the patient's bowel sounds, abdominal
tenderness, and abdominal girth frequently. Which of the following laboratory parameters is especially important
for the nurse to closely monitor for bleeding in this patient?
A.
Platelet count
B.
Protime
C.
Hematocrit
D.
Mean corpuscular volume –
P 2
, • CCRN PRACTICE 09/09/2026
EXAM
Correct Answer :C. Hematocrit
Common injuries resulting from blunt abdominal trauma can include injury to the liver, spleen, mesenteric
vessels, pancreas, or kidneys. In a nonoperative approach to blunt abdominal trauma, observation and
monitoring include serial hematocrits to evaluate for intra-abdominal bleeding. The platelet count does not
fluctuate unless there is a disease process (e.g. cirrhosis, leukemia) or significant blood loss. Protime is a monitor
of coagulation status and can be prolonged without active bleeding. Mean corpuscular volume measures the
average volume or size of a single RBC and is used in classifying anemias.
Which of the following is associated with chest pain, confusion, and petechiae?
A.
Dissecting aneurysm
B.
Fat embolism
C.
Pneumothorax
D.
Myocardial infarction - Correct Answer :B. Fat embolism
Chest pain, confusion, and petechiae are suggestive of a fat embolism, especially within the first 48 to 72 hours
after a long-bone fracture.
The clincher is the petechiae. None of the other choices would cause petechiae.
Which type of shock is most likely to be iatrogenic?
A.
Hypovolemic
P 3
, • CCRN PRACTICE 09/09/2026
EXAM
B.
Cardiogenic
C.
Septic
D.
Neurogenic - Correct Answer :C. Septic
Iatrogenic means caused by treatment or diagnostic procedures or medically induced. Septic shock is the type of
shock most likely to be iatrogenic. Significant contributors include immunosuppressive medications and
therapies and invasive procedures.
A patient had a craniotomy 2 days ago for removal of a tumor. He is awake and talking to the nurse and
demonstrates no neurologic deficit. Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse is 92 beats/min, and respiratory rate
is 22 breaths/min. Urine outputs have been approximately 60 ml/hr over the last 2 days, but he has had a recent
change. He has had 300 to 400 ml/hr of urine output over the last several hours. The urine has a specific gravity
of 1.002. The nurse checks his serum glucose and finds that it is 100 mg/dl. The cause of hypernatremia in this
patient is:
A.
sodium retention.
B.
water loss.
C.
water gain.
D.
aldosterone excess. - Correct Answer :B. water loss
This case is an example of diabetes insipidus, which is caused by a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH
causes water retention in the renal tubules but not sodium retention, so eliminate sodium retention. A lack of
ADH causes water loss not water gain, so eliminate water gain. Diabetes insipidus does not have anything to do
P 4