,NSG 124 Pharmacology Exam 2 | Herzing
University | Latest 2026/2027 Actual(PDF)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin to a client with a bacterial infection. Which
classification best describes this medication?
A) Narrow-spectrum penicillin
B) Broad-spectrum penicillin
C) Cephalosporin
D) Carbapenem
Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum penicillin
Rationale: Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum penicillin effective against both gram-positive and gram-
negative bacteria. Penicillin G and V are narrow-spectrum penicillins primarily effective against gram-
positive organisms. Cephalosporins and carbapenems are separate classes of antibiotics with different
spectrums of activity.
2. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should be aware that
cephalosporins have a potential cross-reactivity with which class of drugs?
A) Macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Penicillins
D) Fluoroquinolones
Correct Answer: Penicillins
Rationale: Cephalosporins have a potential cross-reactivity with penicillins. Clients with a history of
severe penicillin allergy should be monitored closely when receiving cephalosporins due to the risk of
cross-sensitivity. Macrolides, aminoglycosides, and fluoroquinolones do not share this cross-reactivity
risk.
,3. A nurse is administering vancomycin intravenously. The client develops flushing, rash, and
hypotension during the infusion. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Red Man Syndrome
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Red Man Syndrome
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a reaction associated with rapid infusion of vancomycin,
characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is not a true allergic reaction but rather a
histamine-release phenomenon. Slowing the infusion rate can prevent or minimize this reaction.
Anaphylaxis involves more severe systemic symptoms, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin
reaction, and serotonin syndrome is associated with serotonergic agents.
4. A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a complicated urinary tract infection. Which adverse effect
should the nurse include in client education?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Tendon rupture
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Red Man Syndrome
Correct Answer: Tendon rupture
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin carry a risk of tendon rupture, particularly in older
adults and those on concurrent corticosteroid therapy. Clients should be advised to report tendon
pain or swelling and avoid strenuous activity. Hyperkalemia is associated with ACE inhibitors,
hepatotoxicity with antifungals, and Red Man Syndrome with vancomycin.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about metformin. Which statement by the client indicates correct
understanding?
A) "I should take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset."
, B) "This medication is used to treat type 1 diabetes."
C) "I can stop taking this medication once my blood sugar is normal."
D) "This medication will cause weight gain."
Correct Answer: "I should take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset."
Rationale: Metformin (glucophage) is the first-line treatment for diabetes and prediabetes. It
commonly causes gastrointestinal upset, including diarrhea, and should be taken with food to
minimize these effects. Metformin is used for type 2 diabetes, not type 1, and should not be
discontinued without provider guidance. Metformin is associated with weight neutrality or modest
weight loss, not weight gain.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin intravenously. Which action is correct?
A) Regular insulin can be administered IV
B) Only NPH insulin can be administered IV
C) Insulin should never be administered IV
D) Only long-acting insulin can be administered IV
Correct Answer: Regular insulin can be administered IV
Rationale: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that can be administered intravenously. Other
insulin types, such as NPH, detemir, and glargine, are not suitable for IV administration and are given
subcutaneously. Regular insulin is used for IV infusion in acute settings such as diabetic ketoacidosis.
7. A client is prescribed levofloxacin for a respiratory infection. The nurse should monitor for which
adverse effect?
A) Ototoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Tendonitis
D) Hepatotoxicity
University | Latest 2026/2027 Actual(PDF)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin to a client with a bacterial infection. Which
classification best describes this medication?
A) Narrow-spectrum penicillin
B) Broad-spectrum penicillin
C) Cephalosporin
D) Carbapenem
Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum penicillin
Rationale: Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum penicillin effective against both gram-positive and gram-
negative bacteria. Penicillin G and V are narrow-spectrum penicillins primarily effective against gram-
positive organisms. Cephalosporins and carbapenems are separate classes of antibiotics with different
spectrums of activity.
2. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should be aware that
cephalosporins have a potential cross-reactivity with which class of drugs?
A) Macrolides
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Penicillins
D) Fluoroquinolones
Correct Answer: Penicillins
Rationale: Cephalosporins have a potential cross-reactivity with penicillins. Clients with a history of
severe penicillin allergy should be monitored closely when receiving cephalosporins due to the risk of
cross-sensitivity. Macrolides, aminoglycosides, and fluoroquinolones do not share this cross-reactivity
risk.
,3. A nurse is administering vancomycin intravenously. The client develops flushing, rash, and
hypotension during the infusion. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Red Man Syndrome
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Red Man Syndrome
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a reaction associated with rapid infusion of vancomycin,
characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is not a true allergic reaction but rather a
histamine-release phenomenon. Slowing the infusion rate can prevent or minimize this reaction.
Anaphylaxis involves more severe systemic symptoms, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin
reaction, and serotonin syndrome is associated with serotonergic agents.
4. A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a complicated urinary tract infection. Which adverse effect
should the nurse include in client education?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Tendon rupture
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Red Man Syndrome
Correct Answer: Tendon rupture
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin carry a risk of tendon rupture, particularly in older
adults and those on concurrent corticosteroid therapy. Clients should be advised to report tendon
pain or swelling and avoid strenuous activity. Hyperkalemia is associated with ACE inhibitors,
hepatotoxicity with antifungals, and Red Man Syndrome with vancomycin.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about metformin. Which statement by the client indicates correct
understanding?
A) "I should take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset."
, B) "This medication is used to treat type 1 diabetes."
C) "I can stop taking this medication once my blood sugar is normal."
D) "This medication will cause weight gain."
Correct Answer: "I should take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset."
Rationale: Metformin (glucophage) is the first-line treatment for diabetes and prediabetes. It
commonly causes gastrointestinal upset, including diarrhea, and should be taken with food to
minimize these effects. Metformin is used for type 2 diabetes, not type 1, and should not be
discontinued without provider guidance. Metformin is associated with weight neutrality or modest
weight loss, not weight gain.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin intravenously. Which action is correct?
A) Regular insulin can be administered IV
B) Only NPH insulin can be administered IV
C) Insulin should never be administered IV
D) Only long-acting insulin can be administered IV
Correct Answer: Regular insulin can be administered IV
Rationale: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin that can be administered intravenously. Other
insulin types, such as NPH, detemir, and glargine, are not suitable for IV administration and are given
subcutaneously. Regular insulin is used for IV infusion in acute settings such as diabetic ketoacidosis.
7. A client is prescribed levofloxacin for a respiratory infection. The nurse should monitor for which
adverse effect?
A) Ototoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Tendonitis
D) Hepatotoxicity
