PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2026 Exams 1, 2, 3
and 4 Versions with NGN Each Version 300 Questions and
Answers
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 – EXAM 1
1. A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A) "I will take this medication with my morning meal."
B) "I will check my pulse before taking this medication."
C) "I will double the dose if I miss a dose."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
Correct Answer: B) "I will check my pulse before taking this medication."
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause bradycardia. Clients should be
taught to monitor their apical pulse for one full minute before taking the medication and to hold
the dose and notify the provider if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute (or as prescribed).
Taking it with a meal (A) may decrease absorption, though it can be taken with food to reduce
GI upset. Doubling a missed dose (C) is dangerous and can lead to toxicity. Stopping the
medication abruptly (D) can worsen heart failure; the provider should be notified of any adverse
effects.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL and is alert and
oriented. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take first?
A) Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
B) Give the client 4 oz of orange juice.
C) Notify the provider.
D) Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: B) Give the client 4 oz of orange juice.
Rationale: For a client who is alert and oriented with hypoglycemia (blood glucose < 70 mg/dL),
the initial treatment is to administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 4 oz of orange
juice or glucose tablets. IV dextrose (A) is reserved for clients who are unconscious or unable to
swallow. Notifying the provider (C) is not the immediate priority. Rechecking the blood glucose
,in 15 minutes (D) should occur after treatment to evaluate effectiveness, but it is not the first
action.
3. A practical nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions is most important to prevent dislocation of the
new hip?
A) Keep the client's legs crossed at the ankles.
B) Maintain the client in a low Fowler's position.
C) Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
D) Encourage the client to bend forward to pick up objects.
Correct Answer: C) Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, the hip is at risk for dislocation. Maintaining the hip in
abduction by placing an abduction pillow between the legs when turning prevents adduction
and internal rotation, which can cause dislocation. Crossing the legs (A) promotes adduction and
should be avoided. Low Fowler's position (B) is not specifically related to hip precautions.
Bending forward (D) is a flexion movement that exceeds the 90-degree hip flexion limit and
should be avoided.
4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube. Which of the
following actions should the practical nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
B) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
C) Check for gastric residual volume every 8 hours.
D) Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.
Correct Answer: B) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees during continuous enteral feedings
reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting gastric emptying and preventing reflux. Flushing the
tube (A) maintains patency but does not prevent aspiration. Checking residual volumes (C) is
important for assessing tolerance but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours, and
it does not directly prevent aspiration. Changing tubing (D) prevents infection but does not
address aspiration risk.
5. A practical nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client in
the ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Use a 22-gauge, 1-inch needle.
B) Position the client in a prone position.
C) Locate the site by placing the heel of the hand on the greater trochanter.
D) Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication.
,Correct Answer: D) Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication.
Rationale: Aspiration before injection in the ventrogluteal site is recommended to ensure the
needle is not in a blood vessel. A 22-gauge, 1-inch needle (A) may be appropriate for some IM
injections, but needle size depends on the medication and client's size; a 1.5-inch needle is
often used for the ventrogluteal site. The prone position (B) is not typical for this site; side-lying
or supine with the knee flexed is preferred. The site is located by placing the palm of the hand
on the greater trochanter (C), not the heel.
6. A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of
hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
A) Increase intake of processed foods.
B) Limit sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
C) Increase consumption of red meat.
D) Decrease intake of fruits and vegetables.
Correct Answer: B) Limit sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
Rationale: The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet recommends limiting
sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day, with an ideal limit of 1,500 mg for further blood
pressure reduction. Processed foods (A) are typically high in sodium and should be limited. Red
meat (C) is high in saturated fat and should be limited. Fruits and vegetables (D) are encouraged
as part of a heart-healthy diet.
7. A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values
should the practical nurse monitor closely?
A) Serum sodium.
B) Serum potassium.
C) Serum calcium.
D) Serum magnesium.
Correct Answer: B) Serum potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss through the
kidneys, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity and
cardiac arrhythmias. While sodium (A), calcium (C), and magnesium (D) levels may also be
affected, potassium is the most critical electrolyte to monitor with loop diuretics.
8. A practical nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the
following actions is appropriate when providing tracheostomy care?
A) Use sterile technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
B) Clean the inner cannula with hydrogen peroxide.
, C) Change the tracheostomy ties when they are soiled.
D) Deflate the cuff before suctioning.
Correct Answer: A) Use sterile technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
Rationale: Sterile technique is required when suctioning a tracheostomy to prevent infection.
The inner cannula should be cleaned with sterile normal saline or as per facility policy, not
hydrogen peroxide (B), which can be irritating. Tracheostomy ties should be changed when
soiled, but a second person should assist to prevent accidental decannulation (C). The cuff
should remain inflated during suctioning to prevent aspiration of secretions (D).
9. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings indicates that the oxygen therapy is
effective?
A) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
B) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
C) Use of accessory muscles.
D) Client reports dyspnea.
Correct Answer: B) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
Rationale: For clients with COPD, the target oxygen saturation is typically 88-92% to maintain
adequate oxygenation while avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive. An SpO2 of 92%
indicates that oxygen therapy is effective. A respiratory rate of 28 (A) is elevated and may
indicate respiratory distress. Use of accessory muscles (C) and dyspnea (D) are signs of
respiratory distress and indicate that therapy is not fully effective.
10. A practical nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new colostomy.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will change the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full."
B) "I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water."
C) "I will eat foods that are high in fiber to prevent constipation."
D) "I will report any changes in the color of the stoma to my provider."
Correct Answer: C) "I will eat foods that are high in fiber to prevent constipation."
Rationale: Clients with a new colostomy should avoid high-fiber foods initially because they can
cause gas and obstruction. A low-fiber diet is usually recommended in the early postoperative
period. Changing the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full (A) prevents leakage. Cleaning
the skin with mild soap and water (B) is appropriate. The stoma should be pink and moist; any
changes in color (D) should be reported.
and 4 Versions with NGN Each Version 300 Questions and
Answers
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 – EXAM 1
1. A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A) "I will take this medication with my morning meal."
B) "I will check my pulse before taking this medication."
C) "I will double the dose if I miss a dose."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
Correct Answer: B) "I will check my pulse before taking this medication."
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and can cause bradycardia. Clients should be
taught to monitor their apical pulse for one full minute before taking the medication and to hold
the dose and notify the provider if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute (or as prescribed).
Taking it with a meal (A) may decrease absorption, though it can be taken with food to reduce
GI upset. Doubling a missed dose (C) is dangerous and can lead to toxicity. Stopping the
medication abruptly (D) can worsen heart failure; the provider should be notified of any adverse
effects.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL and is alert and
oriented. Which of the following actions should the practical nurse take first?
A) Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
B) Give the client 4 oz of orange juice.
C) Notify the provider.
D) Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: B) Give the client 4 oz of orange juice.
Rationale: For a client who is alert and oriented with hypoglycemia (blood glucose < 70 mg/dL),
the initial treatment is to administer 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 4 oz of orange
juice or glucose tablets. IV dextrose (A) is reserved for clients who are unconscious or unable to
swallow. Notifying the provider (C) is not the immediate priority. Rechecking the blood glucose
,in 15 minutes (D) should occur after treatment to evaluate effectiveness, but it is not the first
action.
3. A practical nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions is most important to prevent dislocation of the
new hip?
A) Keep the client's legs crossed at the ankles.
B) Maintain the client in a low Fowler's position.
C) Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
D) Encourage the client to bend forward to pick up objects.
Correct Answer: C) Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, the hip is at risk for dislocation. Maintaining the hip in
abduction by placing an abduction pillow between the legs when turning prevents adduction
and internal rotation, which can cause dislocation. Crossing the legs (A) promotes adduction and
should be avoided. Low Fowler's position (B) is not specifically related to hip precautions.
Bending forward (D) is a flexion movement that exceeds the 90-degree hip flexion limit and
should be avoided.
4. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube. Which of the
following actions should the practical nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A) Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
B) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
C) Check for gastric residual volume every 8 hours.
D) Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.
Correct Answer: B) Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees during continuous enteral feedings
reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting gastric emptying and preventing reflux. Flushing the
tube (A) maintains patency but does not prevent aspiration. Checking residual volumes (C) is
important for assessing tolerance but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours, and
it does not directly prevent aspiration. Changing tubing (D) prevents infection but does not
address aspiration risk.
5. A practical nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client in
the ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Use a 22-gauge, 1-inch needle.
B) Position the client in a prone position.
C) Locate the site by placing the heel of the hand on the greater trochanter.
D) Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication.
,Correct Answer: D) Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication.
Rationale: Aspiration before injection in the ventrogluteal site is recommended to ensure the
needle is not in a blood vessel. A 22-gauge, 1-inch needle (A) may be appropriate for some IM
injections, but needle size depends on the medication and client's size; a 1.5-inch needle is
often used for the ventrogluteal site. The prone position (B) is not typical for this site; side-lying
or supine with the knee flexed is preferred. The site is located by placing the palm of the hand
on the greater trochanter (C), not the heel.
6. A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of
hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
A) Increase intake of processed foods.
B) Limit sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
C) Increase consumption of red meat.
D) Decrease intake of fruits and vegetables.
Correct Answer: B) Limit sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
Rationale: The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet recommends limiting
sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day, with an ideal limit of 1,500 mg for further blood
pressure reduction. Processed foods (A) are typically high in sodium and should be limited. Red
meat (C) is high in saturated fat and should be limited. Fruits and vegetables (D) are encouraged
as part of a heart-healthy diet.
7. A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values
should the practical nurse monitor closely?
A) Serum sodium.
B) Serum potassium.
C) Serum calcium.
D) Serum magnesium.
Correct Answer: B) Serum potassium.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss through the
kidneys, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity and
cardiac arrhythmias. While sodium (A), calcium (C), and magnesium (D) levels may also be
affected, potassium is the most critical electrolyte to monitor with loop diuretics.
8. A practical nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the
following actions is appropriate when providing tracheostomy care?
A) Use sterile technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
B) Clean the inner cannula with hydrogen peroxide.
, C) Change the tracheostomy ties when they are soiled.
D) Deflate the cuff before suctioning.
Correct Answer: A) Use sterile technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
Rationale: Sterile technique is required when suctioning a tracheostomy to prevent infection.
The inner cannula should be cleaned with sterile normal saline or as per facility policy, not
hydrogen peroxide (B), which can be irritating. Tracheostomy ties should be changed when
soiled, but a second person should assist to prevent accidental decannulation (C). The cuff
should remain inflated during suctioning to prevent aspiration of secretions (D).
9. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min
via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings indicates that the oxygen therapy is
effective?
A) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
B) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
C) Use of accessory muscles.
D) Client reports dyspnea.
Correct Answer: B) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
Rationale: For clients with COPD, the target oxygen saturation is typically 88-92% to maintain
adequate oxygenation while avoiding the risk of suppressing the hypoxic drive. An SpO2 of 92%
indicates that oxygen therapy is effective. A respiratory rate of 28 (A) is elevated and may
indicate respiratory distress. Use of accessory muscles (C) and dyspnea (D) are signs of
respiratory distress and indicate that therapy is not fully effective.
10. A practical nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new colostomy.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will change the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full."
B) "I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water."
C) "I will eat foods that are high in fiber to prevent constipation."
D) "I will report any changes in the color of the stoma to my provider."
Correct Answer: C) "I will eat foods that are high in fiber to prevent constipation."
Rationale: Clients with a new colostomy should avoid high-fiber foods initially because they can
cause gas and obstruction. A low-fiber diet is usually recommended in the early postoperative
period. Changing the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full (A) prevents leakage. Cleaning
the skin with mild soap and water (B) is appropriate. The stoma should be pink and moist; any
changes in color (D) should be reported.
