General Securities Representative Series 7 Exam Questions and Answers
Question 1. Which term best matches the following description: a mortgage-related security issued by a government-sponsored
enterprise rather than a direct obligation of the U.S. Treasury?
A. Limited partnership interest
B. Commodity pool
C. Agency security
D. FNMA security
Correct Answer: D. FNMA security
Explanation: FNMA security is the correct concept because it is a mortgage-related security issued by a government-sponsored enterprise
rather than a direct obligation of the U.S. Treasury. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated
idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is
the most reliable way to identify FNMA security.
Question 2. Which term best matches the following description: the price an investor pays for mutual fund shares, generally net asset
value plus any applicable front-end sales charge?
A. Mutual fund public offering price
B. Money market fund
C. 529 account owner
D. Prospectus delivery for mutual funds
Correct Answer: A. Mutual fund public offering price
Explanation: Mutual fund public offering price is the correct concept because it is the price an investor pays for mutual fund shares, generally
net asset value plus any applicable front-end sales charge. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely
associated idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that
defining feature is the most reliable way to identify Mutual fund public offering price.
Question 3. Which statement about Investment-grade bond is most accurate?
A. A qualifying corporation that generally passes taxable income, losses, deductions, and credits through to shareholders
B. A bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower default risk
C. A security whose cash flows are supported by payments on a pool of mortgage loans and that is exposed to prepayment risk
D. Preferred stock that may be exchanged for a specified number of common shares under the conversion terms
Correct Answer: B. A bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower default risk
Explanation: Investment-grade bond is correctly described as a bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower
default risk. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and
would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining feature
before considering secondary details.
Question 4. A long margin account has securities with a market value of $13,000 and a debit balance of $4,000. What is the account's
equity?
A. $4,000
B. $17,000
C. $9,000
D. $6,500
Correct Answer: C. $9,000
Explanation: Equity in a long margin account equals the market value of the securities minus the debit balance owed to the broker-dealer.
Subtracting $4,000 from $13,000 produces equity of $9,000. The debit balance itself is the customer's loan, not the customer's ownership
interest in the account. This equity amount is then compared with applicable maintenance requirements to determine whether additional margin
is needed.
1
,Question 5. Which term best matches the following description: coordinated orders intended to create a misleading appearance of
trading activity or price movement?
A. Order Protection Rule
B. Locked market
C. Matched order
D. Sub-penny rule
Correct Answer: C. Matched order
Explanation: Matched order is the correct concept because it is coordinated orders intended to create a misleading appearance of trading
activity or price movement. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea. The other choices
are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the most reliable way
to identify Matched order.
Question 6. Which term best matches the following description: the portion of an investment for which the taxpayer is economically
exposed and that can limit deductible losses under tax law?
A. Depreciation deduction
B. At-risk amount
C. Subscription agreement
D. Percentage depletion
Correct Answer: B. At-risk amount
Explanation: At-risk amount is the correct concept because it is the portion of an investment for which the taxpayer is economically exposed and
that can limit deductible losses under tax law. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea.
The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the
most reliable way to identify At-risk amount.
Question 7. Which statement about Local government investment pool is most accurate?
A. An expense related to an eligible individual's disability that qualifies for tax-favored treatment under an ABLE program
B. Compensation charged in connection with purchasing or redeeming fund shares and subject to regulatory limits and disclosure
C. Investing equal dollar amounts at regular intervals, resulting in more shares purchased when prices are lower and fewer when prices are
higher
D. A municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and invest short-term public funds
Correct Answer: D. A municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and invest short-term public funds
Explanation: Local government investment pool is correctly described as a municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and
invest short-term public funds. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different
concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining
feature before considering secondary details.
Question 8. Which term best matches the following description: a confidential regulatory filing used to report transactions or patterns that
meet applicable suspicious-activity reporting criteria?
A. Suspicious activity report
B. Locate requirement
C. Selling away
D. Sell stop order
Correct Answer: A. Suspicious activity report
Explanation: Suspicious activity report is the correct concept because it is a confidential regulatory filing used to report transactions or patterns
that meet applicable suspicious-activity reporting criteria. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely
associated idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that
defining feature is the most reliable way to identify Suspicious activity report.
2
,Question 9. Which statement about Layering is most accurate?
A. An order or position smaller than the standard round-lot size for the security
B. A manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a false impression of supply or demand
C. Execution at a price better than the best displayed quote or customer's limit when available
D. An order remaining active until execution or cancellation, subject to venue and firm policies
Correct Answer: B. A manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a false impression of supply
or demand
Explanation: Layering is correctly described as a manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a
false impression of supply or demand. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to
different concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its
defining feature before considering secondary details.
Question 10. A long margin account has securities with a market value of $38,000 and a debit balance of $17,000. What is the account's
equity?
A. $17,000
B. $55,000
C. $21,000
D. $19,000
Correct Answer: C. $21,000
Explanation: Equity in a long margin account equals the market value of the securities minus the debit balance owed to the broker-dealer.
Subtracting $17,000 from $38,000 produces equity of $21,000. The debit balance itself is the customer's loan, not the customer's ownership
interest in the account. This equity amount is then compared with applicable maintenance requirements to determine whether additional margin
is needed.
Question 11. Which term best matches the following description: the stock appreciation up to the call strike plus the premium received,
measured from the stock cost basis?
A. Maximum gain on a covered call
B. Vertical spread
C. Exercise limit
D. Cash-settled option
Correct Answer: A. Maximum gain on a covered call
Explanation: Maximum gain on a covered call is the correct concept because it is the stock appreciation up to the call strike plus the premium
received, measured from the stock cost basis. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea.
The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the
most reliable way to identify Maximum gain on a covered call.
Question 12. An investor buys a stock at $28.00, receives $2.00 in dividends, and later sells it at $47.00. What is the investor's
holding-period return before taxes and commissions?
A. 67.86%
B. 175.00%
C. 60.71%
D. 75.00%
Correct Answer: D. 75.00%
Explanation: Holding-period return includes both the price change and cash income received during the holding period. The total dollar return is
$21.00, which divided by the $28.00 initial investment equals 75.00%. Ignoring the dividend would understate return, while dividing the ending
value by the initial price would calculate a wealth multiple rather than the return itself. The same framework can be applied to other investments
by including all relevant cash distributions and changes in value.
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, Question 13. Which choice correctly distinguishes Deferred annuity from Exchange privilege?
A. Deferred annuity: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and
fund-specific rules; Exchange privilege: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments
B. Deferred annuity: flexible-premium permanent life insurance whose cash value generally earns interest subject to contract terms; Exchange
privilege: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
C. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange privilege: a
fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
D. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange privilege: an
insurance contract whose accumulation value and periodic benefits can vary with the performance of investment options held in a separate
account
Correct Answer: C. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange
privilege: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
Explanation: Deferred annuity means an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments, whereas
Exchange privilege means a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and
fund-specific rules. The correct choice keeps the two concepts separate and assigns each description to the proper term. The distractors either
reverse the concepts or substitute a feature belonging to another topic. That distinction matters because the two terms can lead to different
regulatory, economic, or operational consequences.
Question 14. Which statement about Conflict of Interest Obligation is most accurate?
A. The requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to identify and address conflicts associated with recommendations
B. An irrevocable custodial account in which assets are held for a minor and managed by a custodian until the statutory termination age
C. A movement of retirement plan assets from one eligible retirement arrangement to another under applicable tax rules
D. The uniform notice used by a firm to report termination of an individual's securities industry registration and required termination information
Correct Answer: A. The requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to identify and address conflicts associated with
recommendations
Explanation: Conflict of Interest Obligation is correctly described as the requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to
identify and address conflicts associated with recommendations. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The
remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On
exam questions, match the term to its defining feature before considering secondary details.
Question 15. Which statement about Closing purchase is most accurate?
A. The stock purchase price plus the put premium paid, before considering commissions and taxes
B. A transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position
C. A measure of an option's sensitivity to changes in implied volatility
D. A call option whose strike price is above the current market price of the underlying
Correct Answer: B. A transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position
Explanation: Closing purchase is correctly described as a transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position. That
description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and would lead to a
different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining feature before considering
secondary details.
Question 16. Which choice correctly distinguishes Taxable municipal bond from High-yield bond?
A. Taxable municipal bond: a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk; High-yield bond:
a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax
B. Taxable municipal bond: a bond that permits the issuer to redeem the issue before maturity according to stated call provisions; High-yield
bond: a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
C. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond: an
exchange-traded fund designed to deliver a stated multiple of the daily return of a benchmark, creating path and compounding risk over
longer periods
D. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond: a
below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
Correct Answer: D. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond:
a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
Explanation: Taxable municipal bond means a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax, whereas
High-yield bond means a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk. The correct choice
keeps the two concepts separate and assigns each description to the proper term. The distractors either reverse the concepts or substitute a
feature belonging to another topic. That distinction matters because the two terms can lead to different regulatory, economic, or operational
consequences.
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Question 1. Which term best matches the following description: a mortgage-related security issued by a government-sponsored
enterprise rather than a direct obligation of the U.S. Treasury?
A. Limited partnership interest
B. Commodity pool
C. Agency security
D. FNMA security
Correct Answer: D. FNMA security
Explanation: FNMA security is the correct concept because it is a mortgage-related security issued by a government-sponsored enterprise
rather than a direct obligation of the U.S. Treasury. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated
idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is
the most reliable way to identify FNMA security.
Question 2. Which term best matches the following description: the price an investor pays for mutual fund shares, generally net asset
value plus any applicable front-end sales charge?
A. Mutual fund public offering price
B. Money market fund
C. 529 account owner
D. Prospectus delivery for mutual funds
Correct Answer: A. Mutual fund public offering price
Explanation: Mutual fund public offering price is the correct concept because it is the price an investor pays for mutual fund shares, generally
net asset value plus any applicable front-end sales charge. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely
associated idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that
defining feature is the most reliable way to identify Mutual fund public offering price.
Question 3. Which statement about Investment-grade bond is most accurate?
A. A qualifying corporation that generally passes taxable income, losses, deductions, and credits through to shareholders
B. A bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower default risk
C. A security whose cash flows are supported by payments on a pool of mortgage loans and that is exposed to prepayment risk
D. Preferred stock that may be exchanged for a specified number of common shares under the conversion terms
Correct Answer: B. A bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower default risk
Explanation: Investment-grade bond is correctly described as a bond assigned a relatively high credit rating indicating comparatively lower
default risk. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and
would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining feature
before considering secondary details.
Question 4. A long margin account has securities with a market value of $13,000 and a debit balance of $4,000. What is the account's
equity?
A. $4,000
B. $17,000
C. $9,000
D. $6,500
Correct Answer: C. $9,000
Explanation: Equity in a long margin account equals the market value of the securities minus the debit balance owed to the broker-dealer.
Subtracting $4,000 from $13,000 produces equity of $9,000. The debit balance itself is the customer's loan, not the customer's ownership
interest in the account. This equity amount is then compared with applicable maintenance requirements to determine whether additional margin
is needed.
1
,Question 5. Which term best matches the following description: coordinated orders intended to create a misleading appearance of
trading activity or price movement?
A. Order Protection Rule
B. Locked market
C. Matched order
D. Sub-penny rule
Correct Answer: C. Matched order
Explanation: Matched order is the correct concept because it is coordinated orders intended to create a misleading appearance of trading
activity or price movement. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea. The other choices
are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the most reliable way
to identify Matched order.
Question 6. Which term best matches the following description: the portion of an investment for which the taxpayer is economically
exposed and that can limit deductible losses under tax law?
A. Depreciation deduction
B. At-risk amount
C. Subscription agreement
D. Percentage depletion
Correct Answer: B. At-risk amount
Explanation: At-risk amount is the correct concept because it is the portion of an investment for which the taxpayer is economically exposed and
that can limit deductible losses under tax law. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea.
The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the
most reliable way to identify At-risk amount.
Question 7. Which statement about Local government investment pool is most accurate?
A. An expense related to an eligible individual's disability that qualifies for tax-favored treatment under an ABLE program
B. Compensation charged in connection with purchasing or redeeming fund shares and subject to regulatory limits and disclosure
C. Investing equal dollar amounts at regular intervals, resulting in more shares purchased when prices are lower and fewer when prices are
higher
D. A municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and invest short-term public funds
Correct Answer: D. A municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and invest short-term public funds
Explanation: Local government investment pool is correctly described as a municipal fund security used by governmental entities to pool and
invest short-term public funds. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different
concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining
feature before considering secondary details.
Question 8. Which term best matches the following description: a confidential regulatory filing used to report transactions or patterns that
meet applicable suspicious-activity reporting criteria?
A. Suspicious activity report
B. Locate requirement
C. Selling away
D. Sell stop order
Correct Answer: A. Suspicious activity report
Explanation: Suspicious activity report is the correct concept because it is a confidential regulatory filing used to report transactions or patterns
that meet applicable suspicious-activity reporting criteria. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely
associated idea. The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that
defining feature is the most reliable way to identify Suspicious activity report.
2
,Question 9. Which statement about Layering is most accurate?
A. An order or position smaller than the standard round-lot size for the security
B. A manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a false impression of supply or demand
C. Execution at a price better than the best displayed quote or customer's limit when available
D. An order remaining active until execution or cancellation, subject to venue and firm policies
Correct Answer: B. A manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a false impression of supply
or demand
Explanation: Layering is correctly described as a manipulative practice involving non-bona fide orders placed at multiple price levels to create a
false impression of supply or demand. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to
different concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its
defining feature before considering secondary details.
Question 10. A long margin account has securities with a market value of $38,000 and a debit balance of $17,000. What is the account's
equity?
A. $17,000
B. $55,000
C. $21,000
D. $19,000
Correct Answer: C. $21,000
Explanation: Equity in a long margin account equals the market value of the securities minus the debit balance owed to the broker-dealer.
Subtracting $17,000 from $38,000 produces equity of $21,000. The debit balance itself is the customer's loan, not the customer's ownership
interest in the account. This equity amount is then compared with applicable maintenance requirements to determine whether additional margin
is needed.
Question 11. Which term best matches the following description: the stock appreciation up to the call strike plus the premium received,
measured from the stock cost basis?
A. Maximum gain on a covered call
B. Vertical spread
C. Exercise limit
D. Cash-settled option
Correct Answer: A. Maximum gain on a covered call
Explanation: Maximum gain on a covered call is the correct concept because it is the stock appreciation up to the call strike plus the premium
received, measured from the stock cost basis. The wording in the question points to the defining feature rather than to a merely associated idea.
The other choices are legitimate exam concepts, but their definitions do not match the facts stated here. Recognizing that defining feature is the
most reliable way to identify Maximum gain on a covered call.
Question 12. An investor buys a stock at $28.00, receives $2.00 in dividends, and later sells it at $47.00. What is the investor's
holding-period return before taxes and commissions?
A. 67.86%
B. 175.00%
C. 60.71%
D. 75.00%
Correct Answer: D. 75.00%
Explanation: Holding-period return includes both the price change and cash income received during the holding period. The total dollar return is
$21.00, which divided by the $28.00 initial investment equals 75.00%. Ignoring the dividend would understate return, while dividing the ending
value by the initial price would calculate a wealth multiple rather than the return itself. The same framework can be applied to other investments
by including all relevant cash distributions and changes in value.
3
, Question 13. Which choice correctly distinguishes Deferred annuity from Exchange privilege?
A. Deferred annuity: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and
fund-specific rules; Exchange privilege: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments
B. Deferred annuity: flexible-premium permanent life insurance whose cash value generally earns interest subject to contract terms; Exchange
privilege: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
C. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange privilege: a
fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
D. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange privilege: an
insurance contract whose accumulation value and periodic benefits can vary with the performance of investment options held in a separate
account
Correct Answer: C. Deferred annuity: an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments; Exchange
privilege: a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and fund-specific rules
Explanation: Deferred annuity means an annuity in which the accumulation period precedes the start of periodic annuity payments, whereas
Exchange privilege means a fund-family feature permitting shareholders to move value among eligible funds, generally subject to tax and
fund-specific rules. The correct choice keeps the two concepts separate and assigns each description to the proper term. The distractors either
reverse the concepts or substitute a feature belonging to another topic. That distinction matters because the two terms can lead to different
regulatory, economic, or operational consequences.
Question 14. Which statement about Conflict of Interest Obligation is most accurate?
A. The requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to identify and address conflicts associated with recommendations
B. An irrevocable custodial account in which assets are held for a minor and managed by a custodian until the statutory termination age
C. A movement of retirement plan assets from one eligible retirement arrangement to another under applicable tax rules
D. The uniform notice used by a firm to report termination of an individual's securities industry registration and required termination information
Correct Answer: A. The requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to identify and address conflicts associated with
recommendations
Explanation: Conflict of Interest Obligation is correctly described as the requirement that a broker-dealer establish policies and procedures to
identify and address conflicts associated with recommendations. That description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The
remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and would lead to a different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On
exam questions, match the term to its defining feature before considering secondary details.
Question 15. Which statement about Closing purchase is most accurate?
A. The stock purchase price plus the put premium paid, before considering commissions and taxes
B. A transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position
C. A measure of an option's sensitivity to changes in implied volatility
D. A call option whose strike price is above the current market price of the underlying
Correct Answer: B. A transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position
Explanation: Closing purchase is correctly described as a transaction that reduces or eliminates an existing short option position. That
description captures the core characteristic tested by this item. The remaining descriptions belong to different concepts and would lead to a
different regulatory, product, accounting, or operational analysis. On exam questions, match the term to its defining feature before considering
secondary details.
Question 16. Which choice correctly distinguishes Taxable municipal bond from High-yield bond?
A. Taxable municipal bond: a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk; High-yield bond:
a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax
B. Taxable municipal bond: a bond that permits the issuer to redeem the issue before maturity according to stated call provisions; High-yield
bond: a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
C. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond: an
exchange-traded fund designed to deliver a stated multiple of the daily return of a benchmark, creating path and compounding risk over
longer periods
D. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond: a
below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
Correct Answer: D. Taxable municipal bond: a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax; High-yield bond:
a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk
Explanation: Taxable municipal bond means a municipal debt security whose interest is not excluded from federal income tax, whereas
High-yield bond means a below-investment-grade bond offering higher promised yield in exchange for greater credit risk. The correct choice
keeps the two concepts separate and assigns each description to the proper term. The distractors either reverse the concepts or substitute a
feature belonging to another topic. That distinction matters because the two terms can lead to different regulatory, economic, or operational
consequences.
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