NUR 555 Quiz 6 | Respiratory System Questions
and Correct Answers plus Rationale | New
Update 2026-2027 | SNHU
Question 1: A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory and
expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What
treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient as the
priority?
A. Antibiotics
B. History of illness exposure
C. Sputum culture
D. Inhaled bronchodilator
Correct Answer: D. Inhaled bronchodilator
Rationale: The patient's presentation—inspiratory and expiratory wheezing,
dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea—is classic for an acute asthma
exacerbation or bronchospasm. The priority treatment is an inhaled
bronchodilator (such as albuterol) to rapidly relieve bronchoconstriction and
improve airflow. Antibiotics (A) are not indicated unless there is evidence of
bacterial infection; asthma exacerbations are typically triggered by allergens, viral
infections, or environmental factors, not bacterial infections. A history of illness
exposure (B) and sputum culture (C) are important for diagnostic evaluation but
are not the priority in an acute respiratory distress situation. The immediate goal
is to open the airways and improve oxygenation. Inhaled bronchodilators work
quickly to relax bronchial smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for acute
bronchospasm.
Question 2: The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for
premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
,A. 30 and 36
B. 24 and 30
C. 20 and 24
D. 28 and 34
Correct Answer: A. 30 and 36
Rationale: Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) of the newborn, also known as
hyaline membrane disease, is primarily caused by a deficiency of surfactant.
Surfactant production by type II alveolar cells begins around 24-28 weeks of
gestation but is typically insufficient until approximately 34-36 weeks. The risk of
RDS significantly decreases for premature infants born between 30 and 36 weeks
of gestation because surfactant production increases substantially during this
period. Option B (24-30 weeks) represents the period of highest risk, as surfactant
production is just beginning. Option C (20-24 weeks) is even earlier, with virtually
no surfactant production. Option D (28-34 weeks) is partially correct but 30-36
weeks is the more precise timeframe when risk begins to decrease significantly.
Infants born before 30 weeks have the highest risk, while those born after 36
weeks have minimal risk.
Question 3: Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most
often caused by what type of infection?
A. Influenza virus
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
C. Rhinovirus
D. Adenoviruses
Correct Answer: B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Rationale: Bronchiolitis is a common lower respiratory tract infection that
primarily affects infants and young children, typically during the first 1-2 years of
life. The most common causative agent is Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV),
accounting for 50-80% of cases. RSV causes inflammation and edema of the
bronchioles, leading to airway obstruction. Option A (Influenza virus) can cause
bronchiolitis but is less common than RSV. Option C (Rhinovirus) is the most
common cause of the common cold and upper respiratory infections but is less
, frequently associated with bronchiolitis. Option D (Adenoviruses) can cause
respiratory infections but are not the primary cause of bronchiolitis. RSV is highly
contagious and typically causes seasonal outbreaks in the winter and early spring.
Prevention includes palivizumab (Synagis) for high-risk infants.
Question 4: Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a
volume of air?
A. Restrictive
B. Acute
C. Obstructive
D. Communicable
Correct Answer: C. Obstructive
Rationale: Obstructive pulmonary diseases, such as asthma, chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), and emphysema, are characterized by airway
obstruction that makes expiration more difficult. In these conditions, the airways
are narrowed or blocked, increasing resistance to airflow and requiring more force
to expire a volume of air. Patients often have prolonged expiration and may use
accessory muscles to breathe. Restrictive diseases (A) are characterized by
reduced lung volume and difficulty with inspiration due to decreased lung
compliance (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis, chest wall deformities). Acute diseases (B) is
not a category of pulmonary disease. Communicable diseases (D) refers to
infectious conditions that can be transmitted between individuals. The hallmark of
obstructive disease is difficulty exhaling air due to airway narrowing.
Question 5: What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
A. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Epinephrine
D. Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
and Correct Answers plus Rationale | New
Update 2026-2027 | SNHU
Question 1: A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory and
expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What
treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient as the
priority?
A. Antibiotics
B. History of illness exposure
C. Sputum culture
D. Inhaled bronchodilator
Correct Answer: D. Inhaled bronchodilator
Rationale: The patient's presentation—inspiratory and expiratory wheezing,
dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea—is classic for an acute asthma
exacerbation or bronchospasm. The priority treatment is an inhaled
bronchodilator (such as albuterol) to rapidly relieve bronchoconstriction and
improve airflow. Antibiotics (A) are not indicated unless there is evidence of
bacterial infection; asthma exacerbations are typically triggered by allergens, viral
infections, or environmental factors, not bacterial infections. A history of illness
exposure (B) and sputum culture (C) are important for diagnostic evaluation but
are not the priority in an acute respiratory distress situation. The immediate goal
is to open the airways and improve oxygenation. Inhaled bronchodilators work
quickly to relax bronchial smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for acute
bronchospasm.
Question 2: The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for
premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
,A. 30 and 36
B. 24 and 30
C. 20 and 24
D. 28 and 34
Correct Answer: A. 30 and 36
Rationale: Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) of the newborn, also known as
hyaline membrane disease, is primarily caused by a deficiency of surfactant.
Surfactant production by type II alveolar cells begins around 24-28 weeks of
gestation but is typically insufficient until approximately 34-36 weeks. The risk of
RDS significantly decreases for premature infants born between 30 and 36 weeks
of gestation because surfactant production increases substantially during this
period. Option B (24-30 weeks) represents the period of highest risk, as surfactant
production is just beginning. Option C (20-24 weeks) is even earlier, with virtually
no surfactant production. Option D (28-34 weeks) is partially correct but 30-36
weeks is the more precise timeframe when risk begins to decrease significantly.
Infants born before 30 weeks have the highest risk, while those born after 36
weeks have minimal risk.
Question 3: Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most
often caused by what type of infection?
A. Influenza virus
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
C. Rhinovirus
D. Adenoviruses
Correct Answer: B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Rationale: Bronchiolitis is a common lower respiratory tract infection that
primarily affects infants and young children, typically during the first 1-2 years of
life. The most common causative agent is Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV),
accounting for 50-80% of cases. RSV causes inflammation and edema of the
bronchioles, leading to airway obstruction. Option A (Influenza virus) can cause
bronchiolitis but is less common than RSV. Option C (Rhinovirus) is the most
common cause of the common cold and upper respiratory infections but is less
, frequently associated with bronchiolitis. Option D (Adenoviruses) can cause
respiratory infections but are not the primary cause of bronchiolitis. RSV is highly
contagious and typically causes seasonal outbreaks in the winter and early spring.
Prevention includes palivizumab (Synagis) for high-risk infants.
Question 4: Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a
volume of air?
A. Restrictive
B. Acute
C. Obstructive
D. Communicable
Correct Answer: C. Obstructive
Rationale: Obstructive pulmonary diseases, such as asthma, chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), and emphysema, are characterized by airway
obstruction that makes expiration more difficult. In these conditions, the airways
are narrowed or blocked, increasing resistance to airflow and requiring more force
to expire a volume of air. Patients often have prolonged expiration and may use
accessory muscles to breathe. Restrictive diseases (A) are characterized by
reduced lung volume and difficulty with inspiration due to decreased lung
compliance (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis, chest wall deformities). Acute diseases (B) is
not a category of pulmonary disease. Communicable diseases (D) refers to
infectious conditions that can be transmitted between individuals. The hallmark of
obstructive disease is difficulty exhaling air due to airway narrowing.
Question 5: What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
A. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Epinephrine
D. Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
