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Nur 2407 Pharmacology Comprehensive Exam Questions And Answers

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NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS




1. A patient is prescribed Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Which of the following clinical

manifestations should the nurse prioritize as a sign of early Digoxin toxicity?

A. Severe hypertension and tachycardia


B. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting


C. Acute urinary retention


D. Sudden onset of dry, persistent cough


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Early signs of digitalis toxicity typically involve gastrointestinal

symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and malaise. Cardiac arrhythmias and visual

disturbances (yellow-green halos) often follow later.


2. A nurse is preparing to administer Heparin subcutaneously. Which laboratory value should

be monitored to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)

,B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)


C. Platelet count only


D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of Heparin

therapy. PT and INR are used for Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy monitoring.


3. A patient is taking Lisinopril for hypertension. Which electrolyte imbalance is a known risk

factor associated with ACE inhibitors?

A. Hypokalemia


B. Hyperkalemia


C. Hyponatremia


D. Hypercalcemia


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: ACE inhibitors block aldosterone, which can lead to the

retention of potassium by the kidneys, resulting in hyperkalemia.


4. Which of the following medications is considered a rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm?

A. Salmeterol


B. Tiotropium

, C. Fluticasone


D. Albuterol


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Albuterol is a Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonist (SABA) used for rapid

relief of acute asthma symptoms. Salmeterol and Fluticasone are for long-term

maintenance.


5. A nurse receives an order for Vancomycin IV for a patient with MRSA. To prevent Red Man

Syndrome, which action should the nurse take?

A. Administer the drug via rapid IV push


B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes


C. Mix the medication with Heparin before infusion


D. Ensure the patient is in a trendelenburg position


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction.

Infusing Vancomycin slowly (at least 60 minutes) decreases the risk of histamine release

that causes flushing and hypotension.


6. A diabetic patient is prescribed Glulisine (Apidra) insulin at 08:00. At what time is the

patient at the highest risk for hypoglycemia?

A. 14:00 to 16:00

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