SCI225 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL UPDATED ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Question:
1. Which of the following types of anemia is a microcytic anemia?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Folic acid deficiency anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Answer:
B. Iron deficiency anemia Microcytic anemia is characterized by smaller-than-normal red blood cells
(RBCs) with a reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Among the given options, iron deficiency
anemia is the most common cause of microcytic anemia. It occurs when there is insufficient iron available
to produce hemoglobin, leading to smaller RBCs that carry less oxygen.
Question:
2. Which of the following diseases increases the risk for abnormal bleeding?
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Factor V Leiden
C. Anemia
D. Polycythemia Ver
Answer:
A.Von Willebrand Disease Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency
or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that is critical for platelet adhesion and
aggregation during the formation of a blood clot. Without sufficient or functional vWF, clot formation is
impaired, leading to an increased risk of abnormal bleeding, including easy bruising, nosebleeds,
prolonged bleeding after injury, or heavy menstrual bleeding.
Question:
3. A 14-year-old girl presents with fatigue, pallor, and dizziness. She mentions heavy menstrual periods
and a diet low in red meat and iron-rich foods. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin, low hematocrit,
and low serum ferritin levels.
1.What are the key causes of iron deficiency anemia in adolescents, and how does diet contribute?
A. Excessive vitamin C intake
B. Low dietary iron intake and menstrual blood loss
C. Dehydration
D. Chronic bacterial infections
Answer:
Iron loss from menstruation combined with inadequate dietary intake is the most common cause in this
population
,Question:
4. A 55-year-old male complains of frequent headaches, dizziness, and a ruddy complexion. He recently
experienced a deep vein thrombosis. Laboratory findings reveal elevated hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red
blood cell counts. JAK2 mutation testing is positive How is polycythemia vera managed?
A.Blood transfusions
B.Therapeutic phlebotomy
C.Corticosteroids Antibiotics
Answer:
Therapeutic phlebotomy reduces red blood cell mass, alleviating symptoms and lowering the risk of
thrombosis.
Question:
5. A 35-year-old postpartum female presents with uncontrolled bleeding from her IV site and oozing from
surgical incisions. She shows signs of petechiae, hematuria, and low blood pressure. Laboratory results
reveal prolonged prothrombin time (PT), thrombocytopenia, and elevated D-dimer levels. What does an
elevated D-dimer indicate?
A.Increased liver function
B.Ongoing clot breakdown
C.Low platelet count High blood pressure
Answer:
Elevated D-dimer reflects fibrin degradation products, indicating ongoing clot formation and breakdown
Question:
6. Which pathophysiological change is associated with ARDS?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Alveolar damage and increased permeability
C) Mucosal edema
D) Hyperinflation of the lungs
Answer:
B) Alveolar damage and increased permeability. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a severe
and potentially life-threatening condition characterized by acute inflammation and diffuse alveolar
damage. This results in increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, allowing fluid, proteins,
and inflammatory cells to leak into the alveoli. These pathophysiological changes disrupt gas exchange
and lead to respiratory failure
Question:
7. What is a common complication of pulmonary hypertension?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Right heart failure
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Asthma exacerbation
Answer:
B. Right Heart Failure Pulmonary hypertension is a condition where the blood pressure in the pulmonary
arteries becomes abnormally high. This increased pressure forces the right ventricle of the heart to work
harder to pump blood through the lungs. Over time, this increased workload causes the right ventricle to
enlarge (hypertrophy) and weaken, eventually leading to right heart failure, also known as cor pulmonale.
, Question:
8. A 65-year-old male with a history of left-sided heart failure presents to the emergency department with
shortness of breath, pink frothy sputum, and crackles on auscultation. Chest X-ray reveals diffuse alveolar
infiltrates. What is the most likely cause of pulmonary edema in this patient?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer:
Pulmonary edema commonly results from left-sided heart failure, which increases pulmonary venous
pressure, leading to fluid leakage into the alveoli.
Question:
9. A premature newborn, born at 28 weeks gestation, presents with signs of respiratory distress shortly
after birth, including grunting, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and cyanosis. A chest X-ray reveals a
ground-glass appearance, and blood gas analysis indicates hypoxemia. Which of the following is a major
risk factor for RDS?
A. Maternal smoking during pregnancy
B. Low birth weight
C. Premature birth
D. Maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Answer:
Premature birth is the primary risk factor for RDS as surfactant production is insufficient before 34-36
weeks of gestation
Question:
10. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with a history of rhinorrhea, fever, poor
feeding, and lethargy. The infant has a cough, wheezing, and tachypnea. A nasal swab confirms respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV) as the cause of illness. What symptom is commonly observed in bronchiolitis?
A. Inspiratory stridor
B. Expiratory wheezing
C. Barking cough
D. Cyanosis without respiratory effort
Answer:
Expiratory wheezing occurs due to obstruction and inflammation of the bronchioles
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Question:
1. Which of the following types of anemia is a microcytic anemia?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Folic acid deficiency anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Answer:
B. Iron deficiency anemia Microcytic anemia is characterized by smaller-than-normal red blood cells
(RBCs) with a reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Among the given options, iron deficiency
anemia is the most common cause of microcytic anemia. It occurs when there is insufficient iron available
to produce hemoglobin, leading to smaller RBCs that carry less oxygen.
Question:
2. Which of the following diseases increases the risk for abnormal bleeding?
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Factor V Leiden
C. Anemia
D. Polycythemia Ver
Answer:
A.Von Willebrand Disease Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency
or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that is critical for platelet adhesion and
aggregation during the formation of a blood clot. Without sufficient or functional vWF, clot formation is
impaired, leading to an increased risk of abnormal bleeding, including easy bruising, nosebleeds,
prolonged bleeding after injury, or heavy menstrual bleeding.
Question:
3. A 14-year-old girl presents with fatigue, pallor, and dizziness. She mentions heavy menstrual periods
and a diet low in red meat and iron-rich foods. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin, low hematocrit,
and low serum ferritin levels.
1.What are the key causes of iron deficiency anemia in adolescents, and how does diet contribute?
A. Excessive vitamin C intake
B. Low dietary iron intake and menstrual blood loss
C. Dehydration
D. Chronic bacterial infections
Answer:
Iron loss from menstruation combined with inadequate dietary intake is the most common cause in this
population
,Question:
4. A 55-year-old male complains of frequent headaches, dizziness, and a ruddy complexion. He recently
experienced a deep vein thrombosis. Laboratory findings reveal elevated hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red
blood cell counts. JAK2 mutation testing is positive How is polycythemia vera managed?
A.Blood transfusions
B.Therapeutic phlebotomy
C.Corticosteroids Antibiotics
Answer:
Therapeutic phlebotomy reduces red blood cell mass, alleviating symptoms and lowering the risk of
thrombosis.
Question:
5. A 35-year-old postpartum female presents with uncontrolled bleeding from her IV site and oozing from
surgical incisions. She shows signs of petechiae, hematuria, and low blood pressure. Laboratory results
reveal prolonged prothrombin time (PT), thrombocytopenia, and elevated D-dimer levels. What does an
elevated D-dimer indicate?
A.Increased liver function
B.Ongoing clot breakdown
C.Low platelet count High blood pressure
Answer:
Elevated D-dimer reflects fibrin degradation products, indicating ongoing clot formation and breakdown
Question:
6. Which pathophysiological change is associated with ARDS?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Alveolar damage and increased permeability
C) Mucosal edema
D) Hyperinflation of the lungs
Answer:
B) Alveolar damage and increased permeability. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is a severe
and potentially life-threatening condition characterized by acute inflammation and diffuse alveolar
damage. This results in increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, allowing fluid, proteins,
and inflammatory cells to leak into the alveoli. These pathophysiological changes disrupt gas exchange
and lead to respiratory failure
Question:
7. What is a common complication of pulmonary hypertension?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Right heart failure
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Asthma exacerbation
Answer:
B. Right Heart Failure Pulmonary hypertension is a condition where the blood pressure in the pulmonary
arteries becomes abnormally high. This increased pressure forces the right ventricle of the heart to work
harder to pump blood through the lungs. Over time, this increased workload causes the right ventricle to
enlarge (hypertrophy) and weaken, eventually leading to right heart failure, also known as cor pulmonale.
, Question:
8. A 65-year-old male with a history of left-sided heart failure presents to the emergency department with
shortness of breath, pink frothy sputum, and crackles on auscultation. Chest X-ray reveals diffuse alveolar
infiltrates. What is the most likely cause of pulmonary edema in this patient?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer:
Pulmonary edema commonly results from left-sided heart failure, which increases pulmonary venous
pressure, leading to fluid leakage into the alveoli.
Question:
9. A premature newborn, born at 28 weeks gestation, presents with signs of respiratory distress shortly
after birth, including grunting, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and cyanosis. A chest X-ray reveals a
ground-glass appearance, and blood gas analysis indicates hypoxemia. Which of the following is a major
risk factor for RDS?
A. Maternal smoking during pregnancy
B. Low birth weight
C. Premature birth
D. Maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Answer:
Premature birth is the primary risk factor for RDS as surfactant production is insufficient before 34-36
weeks of gestation
Question:
10. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with a history of rhinorrhea, fever, poor
feeding, and lethargy. The infant has a cough, wheezing, and tachypnea. A nasal swab confirms respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV) as the cause of illness. What symptom is commonly observed in bronchiolitis?
A. Inspiratory stridor
B. Expiratory wheezing
C. Barking cough
D. Cyanosis without respiratory effort
Answer:
Expiratory wheezing occurs due to obstruction and inflammation of the bronchioles
