EXAM 2
(Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX / Advanced Practice Style)
University of South Carolina
What you Will Get:
• 50 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept
reinforcement.
,Question 1. A nursing student is reviewing the mechanism of action for penicillin.
The student correctly identifies that penicillin is bactericidal and exerts its
therapeutic effect by which action?
A. Inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit
B. Weakening the bacterial cell wall by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking
C. Disrupting bacterial DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase
D. Increasing bacterial cell membrane permeability, causing cell lysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillins are bactericidal beta-lactam antibiotics that weaken the bacterial
cell wall by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) and inhibiting peptidoglycan
cross-linking, ultimately causing cell lysis.
Incorrect:
- Option A: This describes the mechanism of macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) or
lincosamides (e.g., clindamycin), not penicillins.
- Option C: This describes the mechanism of fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin).
- Option D: This describes the mechanism of polymyxins or amphotericin B.
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Question 2. The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed
amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection. The nurse understands
that clavulanate is added to amoxicillin for what primary purpose?
A. To broaden the spectrum to include anaerobic bacteria
B. To inhibit beta-lactamase enzymes produced by resistant bacteria
C. To increase oral bioavailability of amoxicillin
D. To reduce the incidence of allergic reactions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clavulanate is a beta-lactamase inhibitor. It protects the beta-lactam ring of
amoxicillin from being destroyed by bacterial beta-lactamase enzymes, thereby
preserving the antibiotic's effectiveness against resistant organisms.
,Incorrect:
- Option A: While Augmentin has a broader spectrum than amoxicillin alone, this is a
secondary effect of beta-lactamase inhibition, not the primary purpose of adding
clavulanate.
- Option C: Clavulanate does not enhance oral bioavailability.
- Option D: Clavulanate does not reduce allergic reactions; in fact, it may increase the
risk of GI adverse effects.
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Question 3. A client with a documented severe penicillin allergy requires
antibiotic therapy for a suspected methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus*
(MRSA) infection. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for the nurse to anticipate
administering?
A. Cefazolin
B. Ampicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vancomycin does not contain a beta-lactam ring and is therefore safe to
administer to clients with penicillin allergies. It is also a first-line treatment for MRSA
infections.
Incorrect:
- Option A: Cefazolin is a cephalosporin; clients with penicillin allergies may have cross-
sensitivity to cephalosporins.
- Option B: Ampicillin is a penicillin and is contraindicated in clients with penicillin allergy.
- Option D: Amoxicillin is a penicillin and is contraindicated in clients with penicillin
allergy.
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Question 4. The nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin intravenously to a
client. To prevent Red Man Syndrome, which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Administer the dose rapidly over 15 minutes
B. Pre-medicate with an antihistamine and infuse the dose slowly
, C. Administer the medication via intramuscular injection
D. Dilute the medication in normal saline and administer as a bolus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a histamine-mediated reaction characterized by
flushing, pruritus, and hypotension. It can be prevented or minimized by pre-medicating
with an antihistamine and infusing vancomycin slowly over at least 60 minutes (typically
1–2 hours).
Incorrect:
- Option A: Rapid infusion increases the risk of Red Man Syndrome and hypotension.
- Option C: Vancomycin is not administered intramuscularly due to severe pain and
tissue irritation.
- Option D: Vancomycin is never administered as an IV bolus; it must be given as a slow
infusion.
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Question 5. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving long-term vancomycin
therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse prioritize assessing for?
A. Hepatotoxicity manifested by jaundice and dark urine
B. Ototoxicity manifested by hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance disturbances
C. Pulmonary fibrosis manifested by dyspnea and dry cough
D. Cardiotoxicity manifested by arrhythmias and QT prolongation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin is associated with ototoxicity (irreversible damage to the eighth
cranial nerve) and nephrotoxicity. The nurse must monitor for hearing loss, tinnitus,
headache, and imbalance.
Incorrect:
- Option A: Hepatotoxicity is not a characteristic adverse effect of vancomycin.
- Option C: Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with agents such as bleomycin or
amiodarone, not vancomycin.
- Option D: Significant cardiotoxicity is not a primary adverse effect of vancomycin.
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