College of Nursing and Health Innovation
NURS 5432
Family Nurse Practitioner I
Comprehensive Midterm Practice Examination
Practice Questions — Modules 1–4 & Case Studies
150 Multiple-Choice Questions with Complete Solutions
Modules 1–4 · Health Assessment · Pathophysiology ·
Pharmacology · Pediatrics · Women's Health · Case Studies
Aligned with NONPF Core Competencies
& Evidence-Based Primary Care Standards
Academic Year
,NURS 5432 — Midterm Practice Examination UT Arlington · FNP I · 2026/2027
NURS 5432 University of Texas – Arlington
Practice Questions (Modules 1–4 & Case Studies, Midterm) with Complete Solutions
Academic Year · Aligned with NONPF Core Competencies and Evidence-Based Primary
Care Standards
Total Questions 150 Multiple-Choice Questions (One Correct per Question)
Sections 6 Sections spanning Modules 1–4 + Case Studies
Cognitive Levels 15% Recall · 50% Application · 35% Analysis
Question Style 75% Scenario-Based · 25% Direct Knowledge
Marking Each question indicates the correct option with *[CORRECT]*
Rationale Evidence-based, with NURS 5432 curriculum & UTA FNP standards references
Page 2
,NURS 5432 — Midterm Practice Examination UT Arlington · FNP I · 2026/2027
Section 1: Advanced Health Assessment & Health Promotion
30 Questions · Q1 – Q30
Q1: When organizing a comprehensive nursing assessment using Gordon's Functional Health Patterns, which
pattern should the FNP assess FIRST because it most directly informs all subsequent patterns?
A. Activity-exercise pattern
B. Coping-stress tolerance pattern
C. Nutritional-metabolic pattern
D. Health perception-health management pattern *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Gordon's Health Perception-Health Management pattern is assessed first because the patient's self-reported
health behaviors, perceived wellness, and management of illness frame the interpretation of all other 10 patterns.
The NURS 5432 curriculum emphasizes that this pattern establishes the patient's baseline health identity before
exploring specific functional domains. Activity-exercise, nutritional-metabolic, and coping-stress patterns are
then layered onto this foundation, but they cannot be accurately interpreted without first understanding how the
patient perceives and manages health.
Q2: A 52-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history tells the FNP, "I know I should quit, and I'm
thinking about it, but I'm just not ready to set a date." According to the Transtheoretical Model, which stage
of change best describes this patient?
A. Contemplation *[CORRECT]*
B. Precontemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The Contemplation stage is characterized by awareness that a problem exists and serious consideration of
behavior change within the next six months, but no concrete commitment or action plan. Precontemplation (A)
would lack any intention to change; Preparation (C) requires a concrete plan within 30 days; Action (D) involves
overt behavior change within the past six months. The UTA FNP curriculum stresses that matching interventions
to the patient's stage—motivational interviewing here—is essential for effective health promotion.
Page 3
, NURS 5432 — Midterm Practice Examination UT Arlington · FNP I · 2026/2027
Q3: A 45-year-old female with obesity, type 2 diabetes, and depression wants to begin an exercise program but
states, "My whole family is heavy, so what's the point?" Using Pender's Health Promotion Model, which
biopsychosocial factor is the PRIMARY barrier to address first?
A. Perceived self-efficacy *[CORRECT]*
B. Interpersonal influences (family modeling)
C. Perceived barriers to action
D. Perceived benefits of action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Pender's Health Promotion Model identifies perceived self-efficacy—the belief in one's ability to execute
behavior—as the most powerful cognitive determinant of health behavior, often mediating other perceived
barriers and benefits. Her statement "what's the point?" reflects low self-efficacy, which must be addressed
before benefits or barriers will be productive. While family modeling (interpersonal influences) contributes, the
patient's negative self-appraisal is the proximal obstacle. The NURS 5432 curriculum emphasizes self-efficacy
building through small achievable goals.
Q4: During a clinical encounter, the FNP uses the F-I-F-E framework to explore a patient's illness experience.
Which sequence correctly reflects the order of inquiry?
A. Function, Ideas, Feelings, Expectations
B. Feelings, Ideas, Function, Expectations *[CORRECT]*
C. Function, Ideas, Expectations, Feelings
D. Feelings, Ideas, Expectations, Function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The FIFE framework progresses from Feelings (the patient's emotional response to illness), to Ideas (the patient's
understanding/beliefs about cause), to Function (impact on daily life), and finally to Expectations (what the
patient wants from the visit). This patient-centered sequence builds trust by honoring emotion before exploring
cognition, function, and goals. The NURS 5432 curriculum emphasizes FIFE as a core communication tool that
complements the biomedical history and supports shared decision-making.
Page 4