NSG 1300 Pharmacology
VERIFIED EXAM PREP & SUCCESS GUIDE (2026/2027) - GALEN COLLEGE
(1) A nurse is administering an oral medication that has a high 'first-pass effect.' Which
route of administration would bypass this effect and provide a higher bioavailability?
A. Oral capsule
B. Sublingual
C. Nasogastric tube
D. Rectal suppository
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when drugs are metabolized by the
liver before entering systemic circulation. Sublingual, IV, and IM routes bypass the portal
vein and liver initially.
(2) A drug with a 'narrow therapeutic index' is one that:
A. Has a very long half-life.
B. Is safe to give in high doses without monitoring.
C. Has a small margin of safety between a beneficial dose and a toxic dose.
D. Only works on a specific type of cell receptor.
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index (like Digoxin or Lithium)
require close serum level monitoring because the toxic dose is very close to the therapeutic
dose.
,(3) A patient is prescribed Atropine, an anticholinergic medication. Which side effect
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Excessive salivation
B. Diarrhea
C. Urinary retention
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Anticholinergics inhibit the parasympathetic system ('can't spit,
can't pee, can't poop, can't see'). Symptoms include dry mouth, urinary retention,
constipation, and blurred vision.
(4) Before administering Digoxin, which priority assessment must the nurse perform?
A. Check blood pressure
B. Measure the apical pulse for 1 full minute
C. Assess the respiratory rate
D. Check for peripheral edema
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It should
be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in an adult.
,(5) A patient is taking Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor. Which nagging side effect is the most
common reason for patients discontinuing this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tinnitus
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin in the lungs,
which can lead to a persistent dry cough. Patients are often switched to ARBs if this occurs.
(6) When a patient is using both a bronchodilator (Albuterol) and a corticosteroid
(Beclomethasone) inhaler, in what order should they be used?
A. Steroid first, then bronchodilator
B. Bronchodilator first, then steroid
C. It does not matter
D. They should be mixed together in a spacer
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: The bronchodilator should be used first to open the airways,
allowing the corticosteroid to penetrate deeper into the lung tissue.
, (7) What is the specific reversal agent for an opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Vitamin K
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse
respiratory depression caused by opioid toxicity.
(8) A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV. The nurse notes the patient's face and neck
have become bright red and itchy. This is known as:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Red Man Syndrome
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D. C. diff infection
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction to
Vancomycin. It is managed by slowing the infusion rate, not necessarily stopping it unless it
progresses to anaphylaxis.
VERIFIED EXAM PREP & SUCCESS GUIDE (2026/2027) - GALEN COLLEGE
(1) A nurse is administering an oral medication that has a high 'first-pass effect.' Which
route of administration would bypass this effect and provide a higher bioavailability?
A. Oral capsule
B. Sublingual
C. Nasogastric tube
D. Rectal suppository
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when drugs are metabolized by the
liver before entering systemic circulation. Sublingual, IV, and IM routes bypass the portal
vein and liver initially.
(2) A drug with a 'narrow therapeutic index' is one that:
A. Has a very long half-life.
B. Is safe to give in high doses without monitoring.
C. Has a small margin of safety between a beneficial dose and a toxic dose.
D. Only works on a specific type of cell receptor.
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index (like Digoxin or Lithium)
require close serum level monitoring because the toxic dose is very close to the therapeutic
dose.
,(3) A patient is prescribed Atropine, an anticholinergic medication. Which side effect
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Excessive salivation
B. Diarrhea
C. Urinary retention
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Anticholinergics inhibit the parasympathetic system ('can't spit,
can't pee, can't poop, can't see'). Symptoms include dry mouth, urinary retention,
constipation, and blurred vision.
(4) Before administering Digoxin, which priority assessment must the nurse perform?
A. Check blood pressure
B. Measure the apical pulse for 1 full minute
C. Assess the respiratory rate
D. Check for peripheral edema
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It should
be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in an adult.
,(5) A patient is taking Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor. Which nagging side effect is the most
common reason for patients discontinuing this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Peripheral edema
C. Dry, non-productive cough
D. Tinnitus
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin in the lungs,
which can lead to a persistent dry cough. Patients are often switched to ARBs if this occurs.
(6) When a patient is using both a bronchodilator (Albuterol) and a corticosteroid
(Beclomethasone) inhaler, in what order should they be used?
A. Steroid first, then bronchodilator
B. Bronchodilator first, then steroid
C. It does not matter
D. They should be mixed together in a spacer
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: The bronchodilator should be used first to open the airways,
allowing the corticosteroid to penetrate deeper into the lung tissue.
, (7) What is the specific reversal agent for an opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Vitamin K
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Pharmacology Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse
respiratory depression caused by opioid toxicity.
(8) A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV. The nurse notes the patient's face and neck
have become bright red and itchy. This is known as:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Red Man Syndrome
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D. C. diff infection
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Pharmacology Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction to
Vancomycin. It is managed by slowing the infusion rate, not necessarily stopping it unless it
progresses to anaphylaxis.
