NSG 4800 Comps Final Exam NEWEST 2026-2027
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 60 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ BRAND
NEW!!
A 74-year-old male complains of new-onset of headaches. The headaches are described as
bilateral frontal and most severe when arises in the morning; and when coughing. The history is
consistent with headaches caused by:
tension-type headache
cluster-type headache
increased intracranial pressure
migraine with aura - CORRECT ANSWER: 3 secondary headaches caused by IICP- awakening
the brain swelling is the worst.
A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial
blood glucose level is 950 mg/dL (54.2 mmol/L). A continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of
short-acting insulin is initiated, along with IV rehydration with normal saline. The serum glucose
level is now decreased to 240 mg/dL (13.7 mmol/L). The nurse would next prepare to administer
which medication?
An ampule of 50% dextrose
NPH insulin subcutaneously
IV fluids containing dextrose
Phenytoin for the prevention of seizures - CORRECT ANSWER: C. Emergency management of
DKA focuses on correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalances and normalizing the serum glucose
level. If the corrections occur too quickly, serious consequences, including hypoglycemia and
cerebral edema, can occur. During management of DKA, when the blood glucose level falls to
250 to 300 mg/dL (14.2 to 17.1 mmol/L), the IV infusion rate is reduced and a dextrose solution
is added to maintain a blood glucose level of about 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L), or until the client
recovers from ketosis. Fifty percent dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia. NPH insulin is not
used to treat DKA. Phenytoin is not a usual treatment measure for DKA.
,A client is being discharged from the emergency department after an evaluation for a concussion.
The nurse reinforces teaching regarding follow-up should the client develop complications.
Which of the following complications, if listed by the client, would require further instruction?
1.Vomiting
2.Minor headache
3.Difficulty speaking
4.Difficulty awakening - CORRECT ANSWER: 2; all others responses would indicate IICP and
needs to go to the ER
A client is scheduled to begin therapy with carbamazepine. The nurse should assess the results of
which test(s) before administering the first dose of this medication to the client?
Liver function tests
Renal function tests
Pancreatic enzyme studies
Complete blood cell count - CORRECT ANSWER: D. Carbamazepine may be used to treat a
seizure disorder. It can cause leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and, very rarely, fatal
aplastic anemia. To reduce the risk of serious hematological effects, a complete blood cell count
should be done before treatment and periodically thereafter. This medication should be avoided
in clients with preexisting hematological abnormalities. The client also is told to report the
occurrence of fever, sore throat, pallor, weakness, infection, easy bruising, and petechiae. The
results of the remaining tests listed in the options are not associated with the use of this
medication.
A client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis three times a week. What should the
nurse do to protect the fistula?
A. Take the blood pressure in the arm with the fistula.
B. Report the loss of a thrill or bruit on the arm with the fistula.
C. Maintain a pressure dressing on the shunt.
D. Start a second IV in the arm with the fistula. - CORRECT ANSWER: B. The nurse must
always auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill in the arm with the fistula and promptly
report the absence of either a thrill or bruit to the health care provider as it indicates an occlusion.
The client should not have a pressure dressing on the shunt and should avoid wearing tight
, clothing or carrying heavy items such as a purse over the area of the shunt to avoid restricting
blood flow in the shunt. No procedures such as IV access, blood pressure measurements, or
blood draws are done on an arm with a fistula as they could damage the fistula.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation of the disorder?
Hematuria and pyuria
Hematuria and urgency
Dysuria and proteinuria
Dysuria and penile discharge - CORRECT ANSWER: 4, Urethritis in the male client often
results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a
clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic
tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with
urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation of the disorder? (Scroll for Answer)
Hematuria and pyuria
Hematuria and urgency
Dysuria and proteinuria
Dysuria and penile discharge - CORRECT ANSWER: 4, Urethritis in the male client often
results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a
clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic
tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with
urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.
A miotic medication has been prescribed for the client with glaucoma and the client asks the
nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the
client?
A. "The medication will help dilate the eye to prevent pressure from occurring."
B. "The medication will relax the muscles of the eyes and prevent blurred vision."
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 60 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ BRAND
NEW!!
A 74-year-old male complains of new-onset of headaches. The headaches are described as
bilateral frontal and most severe when arises in the morning; and when coughing. The history is
consistent with headaches caused by:
tension-type headache
cluster-type headache
increased intracranial pressure
migraine with aura - CORRECT ANSWER: 3 secondary headaches caused by IICP- awakening
the brain swelling is the worst.
A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial
blood glucose level is 950 mg/dL (54.2 mmol/L). A continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of
short-acting insulin is initiated, along with IV rehydration with normal saline. The serum glucose
level is now decreased to 240 mg/dL (13.7 mmol/L). The nurse would next prepare to administer
which medication?
An ampule of 50% dextrose
NPH insulin subcutaneously
IV fluids containing dextrose
Phenytoin for the prevention of seizures - CORRECT ANSWER: C. Emergency management of
DKA focuses on correcting fluid and electrolyte imbalances and normalizing the serum glucose
level. If the corrections occur too quickly, serious consequences, including hypoglycemia and
cerebral edema, can occur. During management of DKA, when the blood glucose level falls to
250 to 300 mg/dL (14.2 to 17.1 mmol/L), the IV infusion rate is reduced and a dextrose solution
is added to maintain a blood glucose level of about 250 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L), or until the client
recovers from ketosis. Fifty percent dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia. NPH insulin is not
used to treat DKA. Phenytoin is not a usual treatment measure for DKA.
,A client is being discharged from the emergency department after an evaluation for a concussion.
The nurse reinforces teaching regarding follow-up should the client develop complications.
Which of the following complications, if listed by the client, would require further instruction?
1.Vomiting
2.Minor headache
3.Difficulty speaking
4.Difficulty awakening - CORRECT ANSWER: 2; all others responses would indicate IICP and
needs to go to the ER
A client is scheduled to begin therapy with carbamazepine. The nurse should assess the results of
which test(s) before administering the first dose of this medication to the client?
Liver function tests
Renal function tests
Pancreatic enzyme studies
Complete blood cell count - CORRECT ANSWER: D. Carbamazepine may be used to treat a
seizure disorder. It can cause leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and, very rarely, fatal
aplastic anemia. To reduce the risk of serious hematological effects, a complete blood cell count
should be done before treatment and periodically thereafter. This medication should be avoided
in clients with preexisting hematological abnormalities. The client also is told to report the
occurrence of fever, sore throat, pallor, weakness, infection, easy bruising, and petechiae. The
results of the remaining tests listed in the options are not associated with the use of this
medication.
A client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis three times a week. What should the
nurse do to protect the fistula?
A. Take the blood pressure in the arm with the fistula.
B. Report the loss of a thrill or bruit on the arm with the fistula.
C. Maintain a pressure dressing on the shunt.
D. Start a second IV in the arm with the fistula. - CORRECT ANSWER: B. The nurse must
always auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill in the arm with the fistula and promptly
report the absence of either a thrill or bruit to the health care provider as it indicates an occlusion.
The client should not have a pressure dressing on the shunt and should avoid wearing tight
, clothing or carrying heavy items such as a purse over the area of the shunt to avoid restricting
blood flow in the shunt. No procedures such as IV access, blood pressure measurements, or
blood draws are done on an arm with a fistula as they could damage the fistula.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation of the disorder?
Hematuria and pyuria
Hematuria and urgency
Dysuria and proteinuria
Dysuria and penile discharge - CORRECT ANSWER: 4, Urethritis in the male client often
results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a
clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic
tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with
urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which
manifestation of the disorder? (Scroll for Answer)
Hematuria and pyuria
Hematuria and urgency
Dysuria and proteinuria
Dysuria and penile discharge - CORRECT ANSWER: 4, Urethritis in the male client often
results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a
clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic
tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with
urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.
A miotic medication has been prescribed for the client with glaucoma and the client asks the
nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the
client?
A. "The medication will help dilate the eye to prevent pressure from occurring."
B. "The medication will relax the muscles of the eyes and prevent blurred vision."
