Page 1 of 116
NURS 5433 FNP I MIDTERM – 2026 FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER UTA COMPLETE (300) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURS
Prepare for the NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm – Family Nurse Practitioner at the University
of Texas at Arlington (UTA) with this comprehensive study resource designed to
reinforce essential family nurse practitioner concepts, advanced health assessment,
differential diagnosis, primary care management, pharmacology, evidence-based
treatment planning, health promotion, and disease prevention. This document helps
you review key topics, assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study before the midterm exam. Use it to strengthen your advanced
practice nursing knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized
preparation. An excellent companion for successful NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm
preparation.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. A 55-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes presents with a blood
pressure of 150/92 mmHg. He is on lisinopril 20 mg daily. Home BP readings
average 145/88 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily
B. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily
C. Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
D. Add metoprolol 25 mg daily
Answer: B
Rationale: First-line add-on to an ACE inhibitor for hypertension is a calcium
channel blocker (amlodipine) or a thiazide diuretic. CCB is often preferred.
2. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance,
and constipation. TSH is 12.5 mIU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0). What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Methimazole 10 mg daily
B. Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration
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Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism treatment starts with low-dose levothyroxine
(25–50 mcg) in older adults or those with cardiac history, then titrated.
Methimazole is for hyperthyroidism.
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3. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has a BP of 145/90 mmHg and a
urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 80 mg/g. Which antihypertensive is
preferred?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) are preferred in diabetics with
albuminuria for renal protection. They slow the progression of diabetic
nephropathy.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with
headache, blurred vision, and a BP of 160/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows
3+ protein. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Prescribe labetalol and send home
B. Admit for magnesium sulfate and fetal monitoring
C. Prescribe methyldopa and follow up in 1 week
D. Recommend bed rest at home
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria) requires
hospital admission for magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis and fetal
monitoring.
5. A 55-year-old male presents with acute-onset tearing chest pain radiating
to the back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 140/80 mmHg in the
left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
, Page 4 of 116
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the
back and asymmetric blood pressures between arms. Requires immediate
imaging (CT angiography).
6. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take with food to prevent nausea
B. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and remain upright
for 30 minutes
C. Take at bedtime with a small snack
D. Take with calcium supplements for better absorption
Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate (bisphosphonate) must be taken on an empty
stomach with a full glass of water, and the patient must remain upright for
30 minutes to prevent esophagitis.
7. A 25-year-old male presents with knee swelling after a twisting injury. The
Lachman test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
D. Patellar dislocation
Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for an ACL
tear. The McMurray test is for meniscus tears.
NURS 5433 FNP I MIDTERM – 2026 FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER UTA COMPLETE (300) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURS
Prepare for the NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm – Family Nurse Practitioner at the University
of Texas at Arlington (UTA) with this comprehensive study resource designed to
reinforce essential family nurse practitioner concepts, advanced health assessment,
differential diagnosis, primary care management, pharmacology, evidence-based
treatment planning, health promotion, and disease prevention. This document helps
you review key topics, assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study before the midterm exam. Use it to strengthen your advanced
practice nursing knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized
preparation. An excellent companion for successful NURS 5433 FNP I Midterm
preparation.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. A 55-year-old male with hypertension and diabetes presents with a blood
pressure of 150/92 mmHg. He is on lisinopril 20 mg daily. Home BP readings
average 145/88 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily
B. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily
C. Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
D. Add metoprolol 25 mg daily
Answer: B
Rationale: First-line add-on to an ACE inhibitor for hypertension is a calcium
channel blocker (amlodipine) or a thiazide diuretic. CCB is often preferred.
2. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance,
and constipation. TSH is 12.5 mIU/mL (normal 0.4–4.0). What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A. Methimazole 10 mg daily
B. Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day
C. Radioactive iodine ablation
D. Levothyroxine 50 mcg daily with gradual titration
, Page 2 of 116
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism treatment starts with low-dose levothyroxine
(25–50 mcg) in older adults or those with cardiac history, then titrated.
Methimazole is for hyperthyroidism.
, Page 3 of 116
3. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes has a BP of 145/90 mmHg and a
urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 80 mg/g. Which antihypertensive is
preferred?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) are preferred in diabetics with
albuminuria for renal protection. They slow the progression of diabetic
nephropathy.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with
headache, blurred vision, and a BP of 160/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows
3+ protein. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Prescribe labetalol and send home
B. Admit for magnesium sulfate and fetal monitoring
C. Prescribe methyldopa and follow up in 1 week
D. Recommend bed rest at home
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110 with proteinuria) requires
hospital admission for magnesium sulfate seizure prophylaxis and fetal
monitoring.
5. A 55-year-old male presents with acute-onset tearing chest pain radiating
to the back. BP is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 140/80 mmHg in the
left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
, Page 4 of 116
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the
back and asymmetric blood pressures between arms. Requires immediate
imaging (CT angiography).
6. A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take with food to prevent nausea
B. Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and remain upright
for 30 minutes
C. Take at bedtime with a small snack
D. Take with calcium supplements for better absorption
Answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate (bisphosphonate) must be taken on an empty
stomach with a full glass of water, and the patient must remain upright for
30 minutes to prevent esophagitis.
7. A 25-year-old male presents with knee swelling after a twisting injury. The
Lachman test is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medial meniscus tear
B. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
D. Patellar dislocation
Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for an ACL
tear. The McMurray test is for meniscus tears.
