• OB Exam 09/04/2026
OB Exam Prep Test Bank /Obstetrics Real
Assessment Review -latest exam questions
and correct Answers Graded A+ (Latest ) OB
Midterm exam
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the
client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, "What if I start
having red bleeding after it changes?" What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence. –
P 1
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Correct Answer :Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
Lochia should progress in stages from rubra (red) to serosa (pinkish) to alba (whitish), and not return to red. The
return to rubra usually indicates subinvolution or infection. If such a sign occurs, the mother should notify the
clinic/healthcare provider and reduce her activity to conserve energy.
At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower
quadrant of her abdomen. The nurse obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission,
the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and a shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a
heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Check the hematocrit results.
Administer pain medication.
Increase the rate of IV fluids.
Monitor client for contractions. –
Correct Answer :Increase the rate of IV fluids.
The client is demonstrating symptoms of blood loss, probably the result of an ectopic pregnancy, which occurs
at approximately 14-weeks gestation when embryonic growth expands the fallopian tube causing its rupture,
and can result in hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Increasing the IV infusion rate provides intravascular fluid
to maintain blood pressure.
A client with gestational hypertension is in active labor and receiving an infusion of magnesium sulfate. Which is
the most important drug the nurse should have available for signs of potential toxicity?
Oxytocin (PItocin).
Calcium gluconate.
Terbutaline (Brethine).
Naloxone (Narcan). –
P 2
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Correct Answer :Calcium gluconate.
The antidote for magnesium sulfate is calcium gluconate, which should be readily available if the client manifest
signs of toxicity.
A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines
that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the nurse take?
Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
Instruct the client run warm water on her breasts.
Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure. - Correct Answer :Apply cold compresses to both breasts for
comfort.
The client is experiencing engorgement even though she is bottle-feeding her infant, and applying cold
compresses may help reduce discomfort.
A primigravida client who is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requesting an epidural for pain relief.
Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement.
White blood cell count of 12,000/mm3.
Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dl and hematocrit of 38%.
A platelet count of 67,000/mm3. - Correct Answer :A platelet count of 67,000/mm3.
Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) should be reported to the healthcare provider because it places the
client at risk for bleeding when an epidural is administered.
A vaginally delivered infant of an HIV positive mother is admitted to the newborn nursery. What intervention
should the nurse perform first?
P 3
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.
Measure the head and chest circumference.
Obtain the infant's footprints.
Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON). - Correct Answer :Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.
To reduce direct contact with the human immuno-virus in blood and body fluids on the newborn's skin, a bath
with an antimicrobial soap should be administered first.
The nurse is assessing a client who is having a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse determines
that the client is not having contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR
accelerations are occurring. What action should the nurse take?
Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. - Correct Answer :Ask the client if she has felt any fetal
movement.
The client should be asked if she has felt the fetus move. An NST is used to determine fetal well-being, and is
often implemented when postmaturity is suspected. A "reactive" NST occurs if the FHR accelerates 15 bpm for
15 seconds in response to the fetus' own movement, and is "nonreactive" if no FHR acceleration occurs in
response to fetal movement.
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 26-weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is
started on an IV solution of terbutaline (Brethine). Which assessment is the highest priority for the nurse to
monitor during the administration of this drug?
Maternal blood pressure and respirations.
Maternal and fetal heart rates.
Hourly urinary output.
Deep tendon reflexes. - Correct Answer :Maternal and fetal heart rates.
P 4
OB Exam Prep Test Bank /Obstetrics Real
Assessment Review -latest exam questions
and correct Answers Graded A+ (Latest ) OB
Midterm exam
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the
client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, "What if I start
having red bleeding after it changes?" What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence. –
P 1
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Correct Answer :Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
Lochia should progress in stages from rubra (red) to serosa (pinkish) to alba (whitish), and not return to red. The
return to rubra usually indicates subinvolution or infection. If such a sign occurs, the mother should notify the
clinic/healthcare provider and reduce her activity to conserve energy.
At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower
quadrant of her abdomen. The nurse obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission,
the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and a shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a
heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Check the hematocrit results.
Administer pain medication.
Increase the rate of IV fluids.
Monitor client for contractions. –
Correct Answer :Increase the rate of IV fluids.
The client is demonstrating symptoms of blood loss, probably the result of an ectopic pregnancy, which occurs
at approximately 14-weeks gestation when embryonic growth expands the fallopian tube causing its rupture,
and can result in hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Increasing the IV infusion rate provides intravascular fluid
to maintain blood pressure.
A client with gestational hypertension is in active labor and receiving an infusion of magnesium sulfate. Which is
the most important drug the nurse should have available for signs of potential toxicity?
Oxytocin (PItocin).
Calcium gluconate.
Terbutaline (Brethine).
Naloxone (Narcan). –
P 2
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Correct Answer :Calcium gluconate.
The antidote for magnesium sulfate is calcium gluconate, which should be readily available if the client manifest
signs of toxicity.
A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines
that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the nurse take?
Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
Instruct the client run warm water on her breasts.
Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure. - Correct Answer :Apply cold compresses to both breasts for
comfort.
The client is experiencing engorgement even though she is bottle-feeding her infant, and applying cold
compresses may help reduce discomfort.
A primigravida client who is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requesting an epidural for pain relief.
Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement.
White blood cell count of 12,000/mm3.
Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dl and hematocrit of 38%.
A platelet count of 67,000/mm3. - Correct Answer :A platelet count of 67,000/mm3.
Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) should be reported to the healthcare provider because it places the
client at risk for bleeding when an epidural is administered.
A vaginally delivered infant of an HIV positive mother is admitted to the newborn nursery. What intervention
should the nurse perform first?
P 3
, • OB Exam 09/04/2026
Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.
Measure the head and chest circumference.
Obtain the infant's footprints.
Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON). - Correct Answer :Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.
To reduce direct contact with the human immuno-virus in blood and body fluids on the newborn's skin, a bath
with an antimicrobial soap should be administered first.
The nurse is assessing a client who is having a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse determines
that the client is not having contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR
accelerations are occurring. What action should the nurse take?
Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. - Correct Answer :Ask the client if she has felt any fetal
movement.
The client should be asked if she has felt the fetus move. An NST is used to determine fetal well-being, and is
often implemented when postmaturity is suspected. A "reactive" NST occurs if the FHR accelerates 15 bpm for
15 seconds in response to the fetus' own movement, and is "nonreactive" if no FHR acceleration occurs in
response to fetal movement.
A 30-year-old gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 26-weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is
started on an IV solution of terbutaline (Brethine). Which assessment is the highest priority for the nurse to
monitor during the administration of this drug?
Maternal blood pressure and respirations.
Maternal and fetal heart rates.
Hourly urinary output.
Deep tendon reflexes. - Correct Answer :Maternal and fetal heart rates.
P 4
