Page 1 of 91
NUR 114 2026 FINAL EXAM PREP - NURSING
FUNDAMENTALS COMPLETE (300) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS|GUARANTEED PASS.
NURSING
Prepare for the NUR 114 Final Exam – Nursing Fundamentals with this
comprehensive NCLEX-style study resource designed to reinforce essential
nursing fundamentals, patient safety, infection prevention, health assessment,
medication administration, clinical judgment, communication, prioritization,
nursing interventions, and evidence-based patient care. This document helps you
review key topics, assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study before the final exam. Use it to strengthen your foundational
nursing knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized preparation.
An excellent companion for successful NUR 114 Final Exam – Nursing
Fundamentals preparation.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
NUR 114 Nursing Fundamentals Final Exam (300 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. Which assessment
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F)
B) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
C) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D) Productive cough with green sputum
Answer: C
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 89% indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate
oxygen therapy to prevent tissue hypoxia.
2. Which patient is at highest risk for falls?
A) A 45-year-old post-operative patient with a walker
B) A 70-year-old patient receiving antihypertensives
C) A 30-year-old patient with a broken ankle on crutches
D) A 60-year-old patient with new glasses
Answer: B
Rationale: Antihypertensives can cause orthostatic hypotension, and
advanced age increases fall risk; this combination is highest risk.
, Page 2 of 91
3. A nurse observes a fire in a patient's trash can. What is the first
action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Evacuate the patient
C) Use a fire extinguisher
D) Remove the trash can from the room
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Answer: B
Rationale: RACE protocol: Rescue (evacuate patients) first, then Alarm,
Contain, Extinguish.
4. Which finding indicates proper placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube
before feeding?
A) Patient reports throat discomfort
B) Aspirate has a pH of 3
C) Air insufflation produces a gurgling sound
D) Tube length is 30 cm at the nares
Answer: B
Rationale: Gastric aspirate pH is ≤4; pH >5 suggests intestinal or
respiratory placement.
5. A patient with heart failure has crackles in both lungs and jugular
vein distension. Which dietary restriction is most important?
A) Fluid restriction to 1.5 L/day
B) Low-fat diet
C) Low-protein diet
D) High-fiber diet
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid overload worsens crackles and JVD; fluid restriction
reduces preload and pulmonary congestion.
6. The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Which lab value
requires immediate reporting?
A) Sodium 135 mEq/L
B) Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C) Chloride 100 mEq/L
D) Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium wasting; hypokalemia (K <3.5)
increases risk of cardiac dysrhythmias.
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7. A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is required for entering the room?
A) Mask and gloves
B) Gown and gloves
C) N95 respirator and gown
D) Gloves only
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves for any direct
contact with patient or environment.
8. Which action best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A) Changing the ventilator circuit daily
B) Elevating the head of the bed to 30–45 degrees
C) Suctioning the patient every hour
D) Using a closed-suction system
Answer: B
Rationale: Semi-recumbent position prevents aspiration of gastric
contents into the lungs.
9. A postoperative patient reports incisional pain of 8/10. The order is
morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer the morphine
B) Assess respiratory rate and blood pressure
C) Notify the provider for a higher dose
D) Offer nonpharmacologic comfort measures
Answer: B
Rationale: Always assess respiratory status and BP before giving
opioids to prevent respiratory depression.
10. Which finding is an early sign of hypovolemic shock?
A) Bradycardia
B) Increased urine output
C) Thready, rapid pulse
D) Bounding pulses
NUR 114 2026 FINAL EXAM PREP - NURSING
FUNDAMENTALS COMPLETE (300) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS|GUARANTEED PASS.
NURSING
Prepare for the NUR 114 Final Exam – Nursing Fundamentals with this
comprehensive NCLEX-style study resource designed to reinforce essential
nursing fundamentals, patient safety, infection prevention, health assessment,
medication administration, clinical judgment, communication, prioritization,
nursing interventions, and evidence-based patient care. This document helps you
review key topics, assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study before the final exam. Use it to strengthen your foundational
nursing knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized preparation.
An excellent companion for successful NUR 114 Final Exam – Nursing
Fundamentals preparation.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
NUR 114 Nursing Fundamentals Final Exam (300 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. Which assessment
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Temperature of 38.3°C (100.9°F)
B) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
C) Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D) Productive cough with green sputum
Answer: C
Rationale: An SpO₂ of 89% indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate
oxygen therapy to prevent tissue hypoxia.
2. Which patient is at highest risk for falls?
A) A 45-year-old post-operative patient with a walker
B) A 70-year-old patient receiving antihypertensives
C) A 30-year-old patient with a broken ankle on crutches
D) A 60-year-old patient with new glasses
Answer: B
Rationale: Antihypertensives can cause orthostatic hypotension, and
advanced age increases fall risk; this combination is highest risk.
, Page 2 of 91
3. A nurse observes a fire in a patient's trash can. What is the first
action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Evacuate the patient
C) Use a fire extinguisher
D) Remove the trash can from the room
, Page 3 of 91
Answer: B
Rationale: RACE protocol: Rescue (evacuate patients) first, then Alarm,
Contain, Extinguish.
4. Which finding indicates proper placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube
before feeding?
A) Patient reports throat discomfort
B) Aspirate has a pH of 3
C) Air insufflation produces a gurgling sound
D) Tube length is 30 cm at the nares
Answer: B
Rationale: Gastric aspirate pH is ≤4; pH >5 suggests intestinal or
respiratory placement.
5. A patient with heart failure has crackles in both lungs and jugular
vein distension. Which dietary restriction is most important?
A) Fluid restriction to 1.5 L/day
B) Low-fat diet
C) Low-protein diet
D) High-fiber diet
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid overload worsens crackles and JVD; fluid restriction
reduces preload and pulmonary congestion.
6. The nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV. Which lab value
requires immediate reporting?
A) Sodium 135 mEq/L
B) Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
C) Chloride 100 mEq/L
D) Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium wasting; hypokalemia (K <3.5)
increases risk of cardiac dysrhythmias.
, Page 4 of 91
7. A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is required for entering the room?
A) Mask and gloves
B) Gown and gloves
C) N95 respirator and gown
D) Gloves only
Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves for any direct
contact with patient or environment.
8. Which action best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A) Changing the ventilator circuit daily
B) Elevating the head of the bed to 30–45 degrees
C) Suctioning the patient every hour
D) Using a closed-suction system
Answer: B
Rationale: Semi-recumbent position prevents aspiration of gastric
contents into the lungs.
9. A postoperative patient reports incisional pain of 8/10. The order is
morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer the morphine
B) Assess respiratory rate and blood pressure
C) Notify the provider for a higher dose
D) Offer nonpharmacologic comfort measures
Answer: B
Rationale: Always assess respiratory status and BP before giving
opioids to prevent respiratory depression.
10. Which finding is an early sign of hypovolemic shock?
A) Bradycardia
B) Increased urine output
C) Thready, rapid pulse
D) Bounding pulses
