NUR 355 EXAM 1 - MODULES 1 & 2 | INTRO TO MED SURG,
HEENT, INTEGUMENTARY AND SENSORY | WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027
150 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 355 EXAM 1 - MODULES 1 & 2 | INTRO TO MED SURG, HEENT, INTEGUMENTARY AND SENSORY |
WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027. It contains 150 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 150 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 355 1 - Modules 1 & 2 Intro TO MED SURG Heent Integumentary AND
Sensory WITH Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027 Medical-surgical Nursing
Heent Integumentary AND Sensory Systems Undergraduate YEAR 3 Junior Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Introduction TO 1-25 Finding, Injury, Pressure, Hearing LOSS, Mechanism
Medical-surgical Nursing
Health Assessment AND 26-50 Finding, Prescribed, Instruction, Infection, Consistent
Physical Examination
Perioperative Nursing CARE 51-75 Finding, Presents, Severe, Prescribed, History
Integumentary System 76-100 Finding, Severe, Prescribed, Injury, Systemic
Structure AND Function
Integumentary Disorders 101-125 Prescribed, Glaucoma, Medication, Severe, Finding
Burns Wounds AND SKIN
Infections
Sensory System EYE AND 126-150 Finding, Intervention, Acute, Medication, Severe
EAR Disorders
TOTAL 150 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Introduction TO Medical-surgical Nursing
Q1.
A patient with chronic otitis media develops a sudden onset of vertigo, sensorineural
hearing loss, and nystagmus. Which pathophysiological mechanism most likely explains
these findings?
A. Eustachian tube dysfunction causing B. Erosion of the otic capsule by
negative middle ear pressure cholesteatoma leading to labyrinthitis
C. Perforation of the tympanic membrane D. Obstruction of the cochlear aqueduct by
with purulent drainage inflammatory exudate
Correct: B - Erosion of the otic capsule by cholesteatoma leading to labyrinthitis
Rationale:Chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma can erode the otic capsule, causing
labyrinthitis and subsequent sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo, and nystagmus. Eustachian
tube dysfunction (A) causes conductive hearing loss, not vertigo. Perforation (C) typically
presents with otorrhea and conductive loss. Cochlear aqueduct obstruction (D) is not a
recognized complication.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Causes conductive hearing loss and aural fullness, not sensorineural symptoms.
C. Results in purulent drainage and conductive hearing loss, without vertigo or nystagmus.
D. Not a recognized clinical entity in chronic otitis media.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th ed., Ch. 56 (Ear).
Q2.
In a patient with severe burns, which electrolyte shift is most critical to monitor during the
first 24 hours post-injury, and what is the primary mechanism?
A. Hyperkalemia due to massive cell lysis B. Hyponatremia due to sodium
releasing intracellular potassium sequestration in edema fluid
C. Hypocalcemia due to protein D. Hyperphosphatemia due to renal failure
denaturation and calcium binding and tissue breakdown
Correct: A - Hyperkalemia due to massive cell lysis releasing intracellular potassium
Rationale:Massive cell destruction releases intracellular potassium, causing hyperkalemia,
which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (B) occurs later with resuscitation.
Hypocalcemia (C) is more common in later phases. Hyperphosphatemia (D) may occur but is
not the most critical immediate shift.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Hyponatremia typically develops during fluid resuscitation phase, not immediately.
Page 3
, Section A - Introduction TO Medical-surgical Nursing
C. Hypocalcemia is a later complication, often due to fat embolism or citrate toxicity.
D. Hyperphosphatemia is less immediately life-threatening than hyperkalemia.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L., & Cheever, K.H. (2026). Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical
Nursing, 15th ed., Ch. 57.
Q3.
A patient presents with a rapidly enlarging, painful skin lesion with central necrosis and a
violaceous border. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Obtain wound cultures and initiate B. Perform immediate surgical debridement
broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. Apply topical antimicrobials and monitor D. Administer IV immunoglobulin and
closely corticosteroids
Correct: B - Perform immediate surgical debridement
Rationale:The presentation is consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, a surgical emergency
requiring immediate debridement to reduce mortality. Antibiotics (A) are adjunctive, not
primary. Topical therapy (C) is inadequate. Immunoglobulins (D) are used for toxic epidermal
necrolysis, not necrotizing fasciitis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Antibiotics alone cannot penetrate necrotic tissue effectively.
C. Topical agents are insufficient for deep tissue infection.
D. That treatment is for immune-mediated skin disorders, not necrotizing fasciitis.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th ed., Ch. 60 (Skin).
Q4.
Which assessment finding most reliably differentiates acute angle-closure glaucoma from
open-angle glaucoma?
A. Intraocular pressure reading of 22 mm Hg B. Cup-to-disc ratio of 0.5
C. Complaint of seeing halos around lights D. Visual field defect in the nasal periphery
Correct: C - Complaint of seeing halos around lights
Rationale:Halos around lights result from corneal edema caused by sudden marked IOP
elevation in acute angle-closure glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is chronic and
asymptomatic initially. IOP of 22 (A) is borderline; cup-to-disc ratio (B) and visual field defects
(D) are chronic changes seen in both types.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. IOP elevation is present in both, but not specific to acute angle-closure.
B. Optic disc cupping indicates chronic damage, not acute presentation.
D. Nasal step defects are typical of open-angle glaucoma.
Page 4
HEENT, INTEGUMENTARY AND SENSORY | WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027
150 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 355 EXAM 1 - MODULES 1 & 2 | INTRO TO MED SURG, HEENT, INTEGUMENTARY AND SENSORY |
WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027. It contains 150 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 150 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 355 1 - Modules 1 & 2 Intro TO MED SURG Heent Integumentary AND
Sensory WITH Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027 Medical-surgical Nursing
Heent Integumentary AND Sensory Systems Undergraduate YEAR 3 Junior Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Introduction TO 1-25 Finding, Injury, Pressure, Hearing LOSS, Mechanism
Medical-surgical Nursing
Health Assessment AND 26-50 Finding, Prescribed, Instruction, Infection, Consistent
Physical Examination
Perioperative Nursing CARE 51-75 Finding, Presents, Severe, Prescribed, History
Integumentary System 76-100 Finding, Severe, Prescribed, Injury, Systemic
Structure AND Function
Integumentary Disorders 101-125 Prescribed, Glaucoma, Medication, Severe, Finding
Burns Wounds AND SKIN
Infections
Sensory System EYE AND 126-150 Finding, Intervention, Acute, Medication, Severe
EAR Disorders
TOTAL 150 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Introduction TO Medical-surgical Nursing
Q1.
A patient with chronic otitis media develops a sudden onset of vertigo, sensorineural
hearing loss, and nystagmus. Which pathophysiological mechanism most likely explains
these findings?
A. Eustachian tube dysfunction causing B. Erosion of the otic capsule by
negative middle ear pressure cholesteatoma leading to labyrinthitis
C. Perforation of the tympanic membrane D. Obstruction of the cochlear aqueduct by
with purulent drainage inflammatory exudate
Correct: B - Erosion of the otic capsule by cholesteatoma leading to labyrinthitis
Rationale:Chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma can erode the otic capsule, causing
labyrinthitis and subsequent sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo, and nystagmus. Eustachian
tube dysfunction (A) causes conductive hearing loss, not vertigo. Perforation (C) typically
presents with otorrhea and conductive loss. Cochlear aqueduct obstruction (D) is not a
recognized complication.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Causes conductive hearing loss and aural fullness, not sensorineural symptoms.
C. Results in purulent drainage and conductive hearing loss, without vertigo or nystagmus.
D. Not a recognized clinical entity in chronic otitis media.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th ed., Ch. 56 (Ear).
Q2.
In a patient with severe burns, which electrolyte shift is most critical to monitor during the
first 24 hours post-injury, and what is the primary mechanism?
A. Hyperkalemia due to massive cell lysis B. Hyponatremia due to sodium
releasing intracellular potassium sequestration in edema fluid
C. Hypocalcemia due to protein D. Hyperphosphatemia due to renal failure
denaturation and calcium binding and tissue breakdown
Correct: A - Hyperkalemia due to massive cell lysis releasing intracellular potassium
Rationale:Massive cell destruction releases intracellular potassium, causing hyperkalemia,
which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (B) occurs later with resuscitation.
Hypocalcemia (C) is more common in later phases. Hyperphosphatemia (D) may occur but is
not the most critical immediate shift.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Hyponatremia typically develops during fluid resuscitation phase, not immediately.
Page 3
, Section A - Introduction TO Medical-surgical Nursing
C. Hypocalcemia is a later complication, often due to fat embolism or citrate toxicity.
D. Hyperphosphatemia is less immediately life-threatening than hyperkalemia.
Reference: Hinkle, J.L., & Cheever, K.H. (2026). Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical
Nursing, 15th ed., Ch. 57.
Q3.
A patient presents with a rapidly enlarging, painful skin lesion with central necrosis and a
violaceous border. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Obtain wound cultures and initiate B. Perform immediate surgical debridement
broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. Apply topical antimicrobials and monitor D. Administer IV immunoglobulin and
closely corticosteroids
Correct: B - Perform immediate surgical debridement
Rationale:The presentation is consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, a surgical emergency
requiring immediate debridement to reduce mortality. Antibiotics (A) are adjunctive, not
primary. Topical therapy (C) is inadequate. Immunoglobulins (D) are used for toxic epidermal
necrolysis, not necrotizing fasciitis.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Antibiotics alone cannot penetrate necrotic tissue effectively.
C. Topical agents are insufficient for deep tissue infection.
D. That treatment is for immune-mediated skin disorders, not necrotizing fasciitis.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th ed., Ch. 60 (Skin).
Q4.
Which assessment finding most reliably differentiates acute angle-closure glaucoma from
open-angle glaucoma?
A. Intraocular pressure reading of 22 mm Hg B. Cup-to-disc ratio of 0.5
C. Complaint of seeing halos around lights D. Visual field defect in the nasal periphery
Correct: C - Complaint of seeing halos around lights
Rationale:Halos around lights result from corneal edema caused by sudden marked IOP
elevation in acute angle-closure glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is chronic and
asymptomatic initially. IOP of 22 (A) is borderline; cup-to-disc ratio (B) and visual field defects
(D) are chronic changes seen in both types.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. IOP elevation is present in both, but not specific to acute angle-closure.
B. Optic disc cupping indicates chronic damage, not acute presentation.
D. Nasal step defects are typical of open-angle glaucoma.
Page 4
