NUR 355 EXAM 2 - MODULES 3 & 4| "PAIN/INFLAMMATION
IMMUNITY/INFECTION" | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION|
UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027
100 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 355 EXAM 2 - MODULES 3 & 4| "PAIN/INFLAMMATION IMMUNITY/INFECTION" | WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027. It contains 100 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 100 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 355 2 - Modules 3 & 4 Pain/inflammation Immunity/infection WITH
Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027 NUR 355 2 - Modules 3 & 4
Pain/inflammation Immunity/infection WITH Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027
University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
PAIN Assessment AND 1-17 Prescribed, Chronic, Medication, Requires, Finding
Management
Inflammation 18-34 Appropriate, Chronic, Medication, Therapy, Finding
Pathophysiology
Immunity AND Immune 35-51 Chronic, Prescribed, Mechanism, Appropriate, Sepsis
Response
Infection Control AND 52-68 Prescribed, Infection, Explains, Mechanism, Severe
Prevention
Pharmacological 69-85 Prescribed, Explains, Chronic, Develops, Receiving
Interventions FOR PAIN AND
Inflammation
Pharmacological 86-100 Receiving, Therapy, Chronic, Appropriate, Prescribed
Interventions FOR Infections
TOTAL 100 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - PAIN Assessment AND Management
Q1.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor.
Which concurrent medication requires immediate reconsideration due to a boxed warning
and increased risk of serious infection?
A. Methotrexate B. Abatacept
C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Prednisone
Correct: B - Abatacept
Rationale:Abatacept and TNF inhibitors both suppress T-cell and cytokine pathways;
combined use increases the risk of severe infections and is contraindicated. Methotrexate is
standard combination therapy with TNF inhibitors. Hydroxychloroquine and prednisone do not
carry the same additive immunosuppressive risk.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Methotrexate is commonly used in combination with TNF inhibitors to improve efficacy
without a boxed warning for increased infection risk.
C. Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial DMARD with a different mechanism and is not
associated with this specific contraindication.
D. Prednisone may increase infection risk but is not specifically contraindicated with TNF
inhibitors; the warning applies to other biologics like abatacept.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 71 (Immunosuppressants)
Q2.
A patient with chronic neuropathic pain has been on gabapentin 300 mg TID. The
prescriber plans to switch to pregabalin. Which conversion principle is most accurate?
A. Pregabalin 150 mg/day is equivalent to B. Pregabalin should be started at a higher
gabapentin 900 mg/day. dose than gabapentin due to tolerance.
C. No cross-taper is needed; start D. Gabapentin and pregabalin have identical
pregabalin at the full equivalent dose pharmacokinetics, so dosing is
immediately. interchangeable.
Correct: A - Pregabalin 150 mg/day is equivalent to gabapentin 900 mg/day.
Rationale:Pregabalin is approximately 6 times more potent than gabapentin; a 900 mg/day
gabapentin dose converts to roughly 150 mg/day pregabalin. A cross-taper is recommended
to minimize withdrawal and adverse effects, and the drugs are not pharmacokinetically
identical.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 3
, Section A - PAIN Assessment AND Management
B. Pregabalin is more potent, so the starting dose should be lower, not higher.
C. Immediate switch at full equivalent dose risks adverse effects; a gradual cross-taper is safer.
D. They have different absorption and bioavailability profiles; dosing is not directly interchangeable.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 28 (Neuropathic Pain)
Q3.
In the innate immune response, which process is most directly responsible for the initial
containment of a bacterial infection before adaptive immunity is activated?
A. Opsonization by IgG antibodies B. Membrane attack complex formation by
complement
C. Activation of Toll-like receptors on D. Clonal expansion of antigen-specific T
macrophages cells
Correct: C - Activation of Toll-like receptors on macrophages
Rationale:Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells recognize
pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and trigger immediate innate responses
like phagocytosis and cytokine release. Opsonization by IgG and membrane attack complex
are part of both innate (alternative/lectin complement) and adaptive (classical) pathways, but
TLR activation is the first-line recognition mechanism. Clonal expansion is adaptive.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. IgG is produced after adaptive immunity is activated; it is not the initial containment
mechanism.
B. Complement can act early, but it is not the primary recognition system for bacterial
containment.
D. Clonal expansion is a hallmark of adaptive immunity and takes days to develop.
Reference: McCance, K.L. & Huether, S.E. (2026). Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in
Adults and Children, 9th Ed., Ch. 8
Q4.
A patient receiving an intravenous infusion of vancomycin develops flushing, pruritus,
and hypotension. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Stop the infusion and notify the provider B. Slow the infusion rate and continue
immediately. monitoring.
C. Administer diphenhydramine and D. Flush the line with saline and restart at a
continue the infusion. slower rate.
Correct: A - Stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately.
Page 4
IMMUNITY/INFECTION" | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION|
UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027
100 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 355 EXAM 2 - MODULES 3 & 4| "PAIN/INFLAMMATION IMMUNITY/INFECTION" | WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTION| UPDATED RATED A+| ARIZONA COLLEGE 2026/2027. It contains 100 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 100 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 355 2 - Modules 3 & 4 Pain/inflammation Immunity/infection WITH
Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027 NUR 355 2 - Modules 3 & 4
Pain/inflammation Immunity/infection WITH Complete Solution Updated Rated A Arizona College 2026/2027
University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
PAIN Assessment AND 1-17 Prescribed, Chronic, Medication, Requires, Finding
Management
Inflammation 18-34 Appropriate, Chronic, Medication, Therapy, Finding
Pathophysiology
Immunity AND Immune 35-51 Chronic, Prescribed, Mechanism, Appropriate, Sepsis
Response
Infection Control AND 52-68 Prescribed, Infection, Explains, Mechanism, Severe
Prevention
Pharmacological 69-85 Prescribed, Explains, Chronic, Develops, Receiving
Interventions FOR PAIN AND
Inflammation
Pharmacological 86-100 Receiving, Therapy, Chronic, Appropriate, Prescribed
Interventions FOR Infections
TOTAL 100 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - PAIN Assessment AND Management
Q1.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor.
Which concurrent medication requires immediate reconsideration due to a boxed warning
and increased risk of serious infection?
A. Methotrexate B. Abatacept
C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Prednisone
Correct: B - Abatacept
Rationale:Abatacept and TNF inhibitors both suppress T-cell and cytokine pathways;
combined use increases the risk of severe infections and is contraindicated. Methotrexate is
standard combination therapy with TNF inhibitors. Hydroxychloroquine and prednisone do not
carry the same additive immunosuppressive risk.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Methotrexate is commonly used in combination with TNF inhibitors to improve efficacy
without a boxed warning for increased infection risk.
C. Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial DMARD with a different mechanism and is not
associated with this specific contraindication.
D. Prednisone may increase infection risk but is not specifically contraindicated with TNF
inhibitors; the warning applies to other biologics like abatacept.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 71 (Immunosuppressants)
Q2.
A patient with chronic neuropathic pain has been on gabapentin 300 mg TID. The
prescriber plans to switch to pregabalin. Which conversion principle is most accurate?
A. Pregabalin 150 mg/day is equivalent to B. Pregabalin should be started at a higher
gabapentin 900 mg/day. dose than gabapentin due to tolerance.
C. No cross-taper is needed; start D. Gabapentin and pregabalin have identical
pregabalin at the full equivalent dose pharmacokinetics, so dosing is
immediately. interchangeable.
Correct: A - Pregabalin 150 mg/day is equivalent to gabapentin 900 mg/day.
Rationale:Pregabalin is approximately 6 times more potent than gabapentin; a 900 mg/day
gabapentin dose converts to roughly 150 mg/day pregabalin. A cross-taper is recommended
to minimize withdrawal and adverse effects, and the drugs are not pharmacokinetically
identical.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 3
, Section A - PAIN Assessment AND Management
B. Pregabalin is more potent, so the starting dose should be lower, not higher.
C. Immediate switch at full equivalent dose risks adverse effects; a gradual cross-taper is safer.
D. They have different absorption and bioavailability profiles; dosing is not directly interchangeable.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 28 (Neuropathic Pain)
Q3.
In the innate immune response, which process is most directly responsible for the initial
containment of a bacterial infection before adaptive immunity is activated?
A. Opsonization by IgG antibodies B. Membrane attack complex formation by
complement
C. Activation of Toll-like receptors on D. Clonal expansion of antigen-specific T
macrophages cells
Correct: C - Activation of Toll-like receptors on macrophages
Rationale:Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells recognize
pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and trigger immediate innate responses
like phagocytosis and cytokine release. Opsonization by IgG and membrane attack complex
are part of both innate (alternative/lectin complement) and adaptive (classical) pathways, but
TLR activation is the first-line recognition mechanism. Clonal expansion is adaptive.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. IgG is produced after adaptive immunity is activated; it is not the initial containment
mechanism.
B. Complement can act early, but it is not the primary recognition system for bacterial
containment.
D. Clonal expansion is a hallmark of adaptive immunity and takes days to develop.
Reference: McCance, K.L. & Huether, S.E. (2026). Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in
Adults and Children, 9th Ed., Ch. 8
Q4.
A patient receiving an intravenous infusion of vancomycin develops flushing, pruritus,
and hypotension. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Stop the infusion and notify the provider B. Slow the infusion rate and continue
immediately. monitoring.
C. Administer diphenhydramine and D. Flush the line with saline and restart at a
continue the infusion. slower rate.
Correct: A - Stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately.
Page 4
