Ohio PISGS Qualifying Agent QA Ultimate
Examination 2026–2027 | Comprehensive
Question Practice Test with Answers &
Rationales| Free Pdf Access.
1. According to ORC 4749.03(E), when may a qualifying agent qualify another
corporation for similar licensure?
A) At any time, provided they hold a valid QA license.
B) When they are actively engaged in the business of both corporations.
C) Only if the second corporation is a non-profit.
D) When they have obtained written permission from the director of public safety.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.03(E) permits a qualifying agent to qualify another corporation
for a similar license only if they are actively engaged in the business of both corporations.
This ensures that the QA is genuinely involved in the operations of each entity they
oversee.
2. If the Director of Public Safety chooses not to revoke or suspend a license for a
violation, what civil penalty can be imposed per calendar day of the violation?
A) Not more than $50.
B) Not more than $100.
C) Not more than $500.
D) Not more than $1,000.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.04(B) allows the Director to impose a civil penalty of not more
than $100 for each calendar day of a violation as an alternative to revocation, suspension,
or refusal to renew a license.
3. A registered employee who wishes to carry a firearm must submit their
fingerprints to which official?
,A) The Director of Public Safety.
B) The Sheriff of their county of residence.
C) The Superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation.
D) The local police department in their jurisdiction.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(B)(2) specifies that for a firearm-bearer notation, an
employee must submit a complete set of fingerprints to the superintendent of the bureau
of criminal identification and investigation, not the director of public safety directly.
4. To be licensed to carry a firearm while working in Ohio, an employee must
complete a firearms basic training program. What is the minimum requirement for
this training?
A) 10 hours of total training, with 5 hours being range time.
B) 20 hours of handgun training and 5 hours of training in other firearms.
C) Completion of a basic hunter safety course.
D) Successful completion of a one-day tactical shooting course.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(D) requires the completion of a firearms basic training
program that includes a minimum of 20 hours of handgun training and 5 hours of
training in the use of other firearms, if such firearms are to be used.
5. Which of the following is NOT listed as a "Prohibited Act" under ORC 4749.13?
A) Divulging client information without authorization.
B) Advertising as a licensee without a license.
C) Engaging in the unlicensed business of private investigation or security services.
D) Carrying a concealed weapon without a valid CCW permit.
Answer: D
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.13(A) and (B) list several prohibited acts. While carrying a
concealed weapon may be illegal, it is not specifically a prohibited act under ORC 4749.13,
which focuses on the business practices of licensees. However, the status of a PISGS license
alone does not grant the right to carry a concealed weapon (ORC 4749.08(A)).
6. What happens to a licensee or applicant who defaults on a child support order?
A) Their license will be suspended until they are in compliance.
B) A civil penalty of $100/day is assessed until they comply.
,C) They are barred from licensure for three years.
D) Nothing; child support is a civil matter and not related to licensure.
Answer: A
*Explanation: * Under ORC 4749, the department will suspend a licensee or refuse to
issue or renew a license until the individual is in compliance with any child support order.
This is a mandatory action to ensure child support obligations are met.
7. When does the registration of an employee expire?
A) On December 31st of each year.
B) Three years from the date of initial issuance.
C) Annually on the anniversary date of its initial issuance.
D) When the qualifying agent's license expires.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(F) states that the registration of an employee expires
annually on the anniversary date of its initial issuance. This requires employees to renew
their registration each year.
8. A qualifying agent is notified that a private security officer has been arrested for
a disqualifying offense. How long does the agent have to notify the Department of
Public Safety?
A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 72 hours.
D) 5 business days.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * The Ohio Administrative Code (OAC) requires DPS notification within 72
hours of any discharge or disqualifying event, excluding training scenarios. This is a critical
responsibility of the QA to ensure the state is aware of potential risks.
9. Which of the following offenses is considered a "disqualifying misdemeanor"
under OAC 4501:7-1-04?
A) Possession of a small amount of marijuana (first offense).
B) Fraudulent use of a credit card.
C) Speeding over 80 mph.
D) Public intoxication.
, Answer: B
*Explanation: * Fraudulent credit-card activity is a disqualifying misdemeanor as it
involves dishonesty, which can prevent an individual from obtaining or holding a PISGS
license. OAC rules focus on crimes of moral turpitude and dishonesty.
10. If an applicant is denied a PISGS license, within how many days of the denial
may they request a hearing?
A) 5 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
Answer: C
*Explanation: * The appeal process for a denied license provides a 15-day window for the
applicant to request a hearing. This is the standard timeline for administrative appeals in
Ohio.
11. What is the standard application fee for a new Class C security services license?
A) $100
B) $125
C) $200
D) $375
Answer: D
*Explanation: * While some sources show different fee amounts, the official PISGS fee
schedule lists the license application fee for a new license (Class A, B, or C) as $375, not
$125. The $125 figure appears in another source but conflicts with the official schedule.
12. Which lighting on a patrol vehicle is expressly prohibited for a private security
company?
A) Blue flashing lights used for traffic direction.
B) Red emergency lights on the roof.
C) White strobe lights on the front grille.
D) Amber warning lights on the rear.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * Red emergency lights are reserved for law-enforcement agencies and are
prohibited on private security vehicles under OAC 4501:7-1-03. Using them could imply
official police authority.
Examination 2026–2027 | Comprehensive
Question Practice Test with Answers &
Rationales| Free Pdf Access.
1. According to ORC 4749.03(E), when may a qualifying agent qualify another
corporation for similar licensure?
A) At any time, provided they hold a valid QA license.
B) When they are actively engaged in the business of both corporations.
C) Only if the second corporation is a non-profit.
D) When they have obtained written permission from the director of public safety.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.03(E) permits a qualifying agent to qualify another corporation
for a similar license only if they are actively engaged in the business of both corporations.
This ensures that the QA is genuinely involved in the operations of each entity they
oversee.
2. If the Director of Public Safety chooses not to revoke or suspend a license for a
violation, what civil penalty can be imposed per calendar day of the violation?
A) Not more than $50.
B) Not more than $100.
C) Not more than $500.
D) Not more than $1,000.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.04(B) allows the Director to impose a civil penalty of not more
than $100 for each calendar day of a violation as an alternative to revocation, suspension,
or refusal to renew a license.
3. A registered employee who wishes to carry a firearm must submit their
fingerprints to which official?
,A) The Director of Public Safety.
B) The Sheriff of their county of residence.
C) The Superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation.
D) The local police department in their jurisdiction.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(B)(2) specifies that for a firearm-bearer notation, an
employee must submit a complete set of fingerprints to the superintendent of the bureau
of criminal identification and investigation, not the director of public safety directly.
4. To be licensed to carry a firearm while working in Ohio, an employee must
complete a firearms basic training program. What is the minimum requirement for
this training?
A) 10 hours of total training, with 5 hours being range time.
B) 20 hours of handgun training and 5 hours of training in other firearms.
C) Completion of a basic hunter safety course.
D) Successful completion of a one-day tactical shooting course.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(D) requires the completion of a firearms basic training
program that includes a minimum of 20 hours of handgun training and 5 hours of
training in the use of other firearms, if such firearms are to be used.
5. Which of the following is NOT listed as a "Prohibited Act" under ORC 4749.13?
A) Divulging client information without authorization.
B) Advertising as a licensee without a license.
C) Engaging in the unlicensed business of private investigation or security services.
D) Carrying a concealed weapon without a valid CCW permit.
Answer: D
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.13(A) and (B) list several prohibited acts. While carrying a
concealed weapon may be illegal, it is not specifically a prohibited act under ORC 4749.13,
which focuses on the business practices of licensees. However, the status of a PISGS license
alone does not grant the right to carry a concealed weapon (ORC 4749.08(A)).
6. What happens to a licensee or applicant who defaults on a child support order?
A) Their license will be suspended until they are in compliance.
B) A civil penalty of $100/day is assessed until they comply.
,C) They are barred from licensure for three years.
D) Nothing; child support is a civil matter and not related to licensure.
Answer: A
*Explanation: * Under ORC 4749, the department will suspend a licensee or refuse to
issue or renew a license until the individual is in compliance with any child support order.
This is a mandatory action to ensure child support obligations are met.
7. When does the registration of an employee expire?
A) On December 31st of each year.
B) Three years from the date of initial issuance.
C) Annually on the anniversary date of its initial issuance.
D) When the qualifying agent's license expires.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * ORC 4749.06(F) states that the registration of an employee expires
annually on the anniversary date of its initial issuance. This requires employees to renew
their registration each year.
8. A qualifying agent is notified that a private security officer has been arrested for
a disqualifying offense. How long does the agent have to notify the Department of
Public Safety?
A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 72 hours.
D) 5 business days.
Answer: C
*Explanation: * The Ohio Administrative Code (OAC) requires DPS notification within 72
hours of any discharge or disqualifying event, excluding training scenarios. This is a critical
responsibility of the QA to ensure the state is aware of potential risks.
9. Which of the following offenses is considered a "disqualifying misdemeanor"
under OAC 4501:7-1-04?
A) Possession of a small amount of marijuana (first offense).
B) Fraudulent use of a credit card.
C) Speeding over 80 mph.
D) Public intoxication.
, Answer: B
*Explanation: * Fraudulent credit-card activity is a disqualifying misdemeanor as it
involves dishonesty, which can prevent an individual from obtaining or holding a PISGS
license. OAC rules focus on crimes of moral turpitude and dishonesty.
10. If an applicant is denied a PISGS license, within how many days of the denial
may they request a hearing?
A) 5 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
Answer: C
*Explanation: * The appeal process for a denied license provides a 15-day window for the
applicant to request a hearing. This is the standard timeline for administrative appeals in
Ohio.
11. What is the standard application fee for a new Class C security services license?
A) $100
B) $125
C) $200
D) $375
Answer: D
*Explanation: * While some sources show different fee amounts, the official PISGS fee
schedule lists the license application fee for a new license (Class A, B, or C) as $375, not
$125. The $125 figure appears in another source but conflicts with the official schedule.
12. Which lighting on a patrol vehicle is expressly prohibited for a private security
company?
A) Blue flashing lights used for traffic direction.
B) Red emergency lights on the roof.
C) White strobe lights on the front grille.
D) Amber warning lights on the rear.
Answer: B
*Explanation: * Red emergency lights are reserved for law-enforcement agencies and are
prohibited on private security vehicles under OAC 4501:7-1-03. Using them could imply
official police authority.
