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NR341 CRITICAL CARE NURSING MIDTERM 250 QUESTIONS ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

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NR341 CRITICAL CARE NURSING MIDTERM 250 QUESTIONS ANSWERS AND RATIONALES

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Chamberlain University - Midterm Exam Study Guide
NR341 CRITICAL CARE NURSING(Complex Adult
Health) Study Guide


Question 1: A patient in the intensive care unit displays a sudden onset of Atrial Fibrillation
on the cardiac monitor. The patient is hypotensive and confused. Which immediate nursing
intervention is the highest priority?

Correct Answer: Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion (or defibrillation
if pulseless VT) and administer prescribed antiarrhythmic medications while
stabilizing the airway.

Rationale: Atrial Fibrillation with symptomatic instability (hypotension, altered mental status)
requires immediate electrical or medical intervention to restore cardiac output and prevent
progression to cardiac arrest.

Question 2: During assessment of a critically ill patient with an arterial line and a
pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse notes a sudden change in the Pulmonary Artery
Wedge Pressure (PAWP). Which action should the nurse perform first to ensure
measurement accuracy?

Correct Answer: Zero the transducer at the phlebostatic axis (fourth intercostal
space, mid-axillary line) and perform a square-wave test.

Rationale: Accurate interpretation of hemodynamic data such as Pulmonary Artery Wedge
Pressure (PAWP) depends entirely on proper calibration and positioning of the transducer
system at the phlebostatic axis.

Question 3: A mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS) triggers a PEEP Complications alert. The nurse notes decreased breath sounds on
the right side and tracheal deviation. What is the nurse's immediate action?

Correct Answer: Disconnect the patient from the ventilator, manually ventilate with a
bag-valve-mask device at 100% oxygen, and prepare for urgent needle
decompression or chest tube insertion.

Rationale: Sudden changes or alarms in ARDS management associated with PEEP can lead to
barotrauma, pneumothorax, or decreased cardiac output, necessitating manual ventilation
and immediate anatomical decompression.

Question 4: A patient in Norepinephrine and Epinephrine Titration is receiving aggressive
fluid resuscitation and vasoactive infusions. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains
below 60 mmHg. Which critical parameter must the nurse evaluate to guide further
vasoactive titration?

,Correct Answer: Assess central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2), serum lactate
trends, and hourly urine output to verify tissue perfusion.

Rationale: Managing severe shock states requires tracking global tissue perfusion markers
(like lactate and ScvO2) rather than blood pressure alone to prevent irreversible multi-organ
dysfunction syndrome.

Question 5: A patient is admitted with complications related to STEMI vs NSTEMI
Interventions. The nurse is formulating the advanced plan of care. Which assessment
finding requires immediate notification of the provider?

Correct Answer: A acute decline in neurological status, rapid drop in oxygen
saturation, or signs of systemic hypoperfusion.

Rationale: Early recognition of decompensation in high-acuity adult health settings reduces
failure-to-rescue rates and optimizes clinical outcomes.

Question 6: A patient in the intensive care unit displays a sudden onset of Atrial Fibrillation
on the cardiac monitor. The patient is hypotensive and confused. Which immediate nursing
intervention is the highest priority?

Correct Answer: Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion (or defibrillation
if pulseless VT) and administer prescribed antiarrhythmic medications while
stabilizing the airway.

Rationale: Atrial Fibrillation with symptomatic instability (hypotension, altered mental status)
requires immediate electrical or medical intervention to restore cardiac output and prevent
progression to cardiac arrest.

Question 7: During assessment of a critically ill patient with an arterial line and a
pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse notes a sudden change in the Arterial Line
Maintenance. Which action should the nurse perform first to ensure measurement
accuracy?

Correct Answer: Zero the transducer at the phlebostatic axis (fourth intercostal
space, mid-axillary line) and perform a square-wave test.

Rationale: Accurate interpretation of hemodynamic data such as Arterial Line Maintenance
depends entirely on proper calibration and positioning of the transducer system at the
phlebostatic axis.

Question 8: A mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS) triggers a Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) Bundles alert. The nurse notes
decreased breath sounds on the right side and tracheal deviation. What is the nurse's
immediate action?

,Correct Answer: Disconnect the patient from the ventilator, manually ventilate with a
bag-valve-mask device at 100% oxygen, and prepare for urgent needle
decompression or chest tube insertion.

Rationale: Sudden changes or alarms in ARDS management associated with PEEP can lead to
barotrauma, pneumothorax, or decreased cardiac output, necessitating manual ventilation
and immediate anatomical decompression.

Question 9: A patient in Septic Shock Resuscitation is receiving aggressive fluid
resuscitation and vasoactive infusions. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains below 60
mmHg. Which critical parameter must the nurse evaluate to guide further vasoactive
titration?

Correct Answer: Assess central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2), serum lactate
trends, and hourly urine output to verify tissue perfusion.

Rationale: Managing severe shock states requires tracking global tissue perfusion markers
(like lactate and ScvO2) rather than blood pressure alone to prevent irreversible multi-organ
dysfunction syndrome.

Question 10: A patient is admitted with complications related to Post-PCI Nursing Care.
The nurse is formulating the advanced plan of care. Which assessment finding requires
immediate notification of the provider?

Correct Answer: A acute decline in neurological status, rapid drop in oxygen
saturation, or signs of systemic hypoperfusion.

Rationale: Early recognition of decompensation in high-acuity adult health settings reduces
failure-to-rescue rates and optimizes clinical outcomes.

Question 11: A patient in the intensive care unit displays a sudden onset of Atrial
Fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. The patient is hypotensive and confused. Which
immediate nursing intervention is the highest priority?

Correct Answer: Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion (or defibrillation
if pulseless VT) and administer prescribed antiarrhythmic medications while
stabilizing the airway.

Rationale: Atrial Fibrillation with symptomatic instability (hypotension, altered mental status)
requires immediate electrical or medical intervention to restore cardiac output and prevent
progression to cardiac arrest.

Question 12: During assessment of a critically ill patient with an arterial line and a
pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse notes a sudden change in the Elevated Systemic
Vascular Resistance (SVR). Which action should the nurse perform first to ensure
measurement accuracy?

, Correct Answer: Zero the transducer at the phlebostatic axis (fourth intercostal
space, mid-axillary line) and perform a square-wave test.

Rationale: Accurate interpretation of hemodynamic data such as Elevated Systemic Vascular
Resistance (SVR) depends entirely on proper calibration and positioning of the transducer
system at the phlebostatic axis.

Question 13: A mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS) triggers a ARDS Pathophysiology alert. The nurse notes decreased breath sounds on
the right side and tracheal deviation. What is the nurse's immediate action?

Correct Answer: Disconnect the patient from the ventilator, manually ventilate with a
bag-valve-mask device at 100% oxygen, and prepare for urgent needle
decompression or chest tube insertion.

Rationale: Sudden changes or alarms in ARDS management associated with PEEP can lead to
barotrauma, pneumothorax, or decreased cardiac output, necessitating manual ventilation
and immediate anatomical decompression.

Question 14: A patient in Cardiogenic Shock Treatment is receiving aggressive fluid
resuscitation and vasoactive infusions. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains below 60
mmHg. Which critical parameter must the nurse evaluate to guide further vasoactive
titration?

Correct Answer: Assess central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2), serum lactate
trends, and hourly urine output to verify tissue perfusion.

Rationale: Managing severe shock states requires tracking global tissue perfusion markers
(like lactate and ScvO2) rather than blood pressure alone to prevent irreversible multi-organ
dysfunction syndrome.

Question 15: A patient is admitted with complications related to Thrombolytic Therapy
Contraindications. The nurse is formulating the advanced plan of care. Which assessment
finding requires immediate notification of the provider?

Correct Answer: A acute decline in neurological status, rapid drop in oxygen
saturation, or signs of systemic hypoperfusion.

Rationale: Early recognition of decompensation in high-acuity adult health settings reduces
failure-to-rescue rates and optimizes clinical outcomes.

Question 16: A patient in the intensive care unit displays a sudden onset of Atrial
Fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. The patient is hypotensive and confused. Which
immediate nursing intervention is the highest priority?

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