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RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPDATE EXAM.pdf

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BB ATI PROCTORED COMPREHENSIVE RN
PREDICTOR EXAM TEST BANK
100 Comprehensive Nursing Questions & In-Depth Clinical Rationale



Exam Blueprint & Clinical Topics Matrix: This highly comprehensive, professional test bank is
programmatically compiled and grounded in the official RN Comprehensive Predictor source material.
Every single question is structured to mimic the exact style, tone, and cognitive rigor of high-stakes
nursing licensure and ATI exams. Each question is accompanied by an in-depth clinical rationale, detailing
why the correct answer is correct and dissecting why the incorrect choices are clinically unviable or
inappropriate. The questions are distributed across 5 core clinical domains to ensure balanced, exhaustive
study coverage for the 2026-2027 update exam.


Clinical Focus Area Question Range Core Focus Areas Included

1. Cardio-Hematology and RenalQ1 – Q20 Digoxin safety, MI recovery, fluid overload, post-thrombectomy care, CKD, and warfari

2. Respiratory and Neurological Q21 – Q55 Stroke care, dysphagia, thoracentesis, chest tube systems, ventilation, hypoxemia, pne

3. Maternal-Newborn & Obstetrical
Q56 – Q70 Oral contraceptives, labor augmentation, Nagele's rule, fetal monitor patterns, newborn

4. Pediatric Nursing & Care of Children
Q71 – Q85 Gastrostomy bolus feedings, sickle-cell anemia, infant dehydration, varicella zoster, leu

5. Mental Health & Professional Practice
Q86 – Q100 Lithium levels, serotonin syndrome, OCD care plans, approved documentation, interpr




Grounded in Official Course Material Page 1 Nursing Review Companion

,RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026-2027 UPDATE EXAM




MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING: CARDIO-HEMATOLOGY AND RENAL


Question 1
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client. Which of the following findings is the
priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
B. Apical pulse of 58/min
C. Digoxin level of 1.0 ng/mL
D. Constipation for 2 days
ANSWER ■: B — Apical pulse of 58/min

Explanation: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must assess the client's apical pulse for a full minute. In an
adult, if the heart rate is less than 60/min, the medication should be withheld and the provider notified. A potassium
level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A digoxin level of 1.0 ng/mL is within the
therapeutic range of 0.8 to 2.0 ng/mL. Constipation is a non-urgent finding and is not a contraindication for
administering digoxin.



Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory results should
the nurse report to the provider?
A. White blood cell (WBC) count 8,000/mm3
B. Platelets 150,000/mm3
C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 10 units/L
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/hr
ANSWER ■: D — Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 75 mm/hr

Explanation: An Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr is significantly elevated (expected range is
typically < 20 mm/hr) and indicates a high level of active systemic inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid
arthritis and should be reported to the provider to guide therapy. A WBC count of 8,000/mm3 is within the normal
reference range (4,500 to 11,000/mm3). Platelets of 150,000/mm3 are within the normal reference range (150,000
to 450,000/mm3). An AST of 10 units/L is within the normal reference range (typically 10 to 40 units/L) and
indicates normal liver function.




Grounded in Official Course Material Page 2 Nursing Review Companion

,RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026-2027 UPDATE EXAM




Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client who has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. Which of the following
laboratory tests should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
A. Platelet count
B. Potassium level
C. Creatinine clearance
D. Prealbumin
ANSWER ■: A — Platelet count

Explanation: Petechiae (small red/purple spots on the skin) and ecchymoses (bruising) are classic clinical signs of
thrombocytopenia or a coagulation disorder. A platelet count is the most appropriate test to determine the clotting
capability of the client. Potassium levels assess electrolyte balance and cardiac function. Creatinine clearance
evaluates kidney function, and prealbumin is used to evaluate nutritional status.



Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days
ago. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.
ANSWER ■: D — Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.

Explanation: After a myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation should be initiated to promote physiological
recovery, educate the client on heart-healthy lifestyle modifications, and safely monitor progressive activity.
Performing an ECG every 12 hours or drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is not indicated 3 days post-MI unless
the client experiences new or worsening symptoms of ischemia. Resting in a supine position increases venous
return and cardiac workload, so semi-Fowler's is preferred.




Grounded in Official Course Material Page 3 Nursing Review Companion

, RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR NURSING REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026-2027 UPDATE EXAM




Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should
the nurse identify as an indication of pulmonary congestion?
A. Frothy, pink sputum
B. Jugular vein distention (JVD)
C. Weight gain of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) in 24 hours
D. Bilateral peripheral edema
ANSWER ■: A — Frothy, pink sputum

Explanation: Frothy, pink-tinged sputum is a classic manifestation of severe pulmonary congestion and pulmonary
edema, which occurs in left-sided heart failure when fluid backs up into the lungs. Jugular vein distention, rapid
weight gain, and bilateral peripheral edema are clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure, resulting from
systemic venous congestion.



Question 6
A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (RBCs) to a client. Which of the following
solutions should the nurse use to prime the intravenous tubing?
A. Lactated Ringer's
B. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
C. 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
ANSWER ■: B — 0.9% Sodium Chloride

Explanation: Only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is compatible with blood products and should be used to
prime the IV tubing and flush the line. Other solutions, such as D5W, cause hemolysis of RBCs, while Lactated
Ringer's contains calcium, which can cause clotting in the intravenous line.



Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following
findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing circulatory overload?
A. Low back pain and fever
B. Dyspnea and cough
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Thready, rapid pulse
ANSWER ■: B — Dyspnea and cough

Explanation: Dyspnea, orthopnea, cough, crackles, jugular vein distention, and hypertension are classic signs of
circulatory overload (fluid overload) during or after a blood product transfusion. Low back pain and fever indicate an
acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypotension and a rapid, thready pulse indicate an allergic or septic reaction.




Grounded in Official Course Material Page 4 Nursing Review Companion

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