Houston Community College BIOL 2301
Pharmacology Evolve HESI Questions Verified and Provided
with A+ Graded Answers Latest Updated 2026
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a B. Neostigmine bromide
severe head injury is intubated and placed on
assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs,
optimal ventilation and prevent the client from reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium
"fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the
drug adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication compared with the use of anticholinergics.
should be immediately accessible for a potential
complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B.Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D.Epinephrine
,A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C,C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650
mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the
health care provider to report that the client has
developed diarrhea. Which change in
prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
When providing nursing care for a client receivingB. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis,
which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary
retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds
often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for
hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to
decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being B. Midazolam IV
prepared for a closed manual reduction using
conscious sedation. Which medication should the
nurse explain as a sedative used during the
procedure?
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM
A client is being discharged with a prescription for D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
day. sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis. Which
instruction should the nurse provide to this client
prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
The health care provider prescribes C. Myelosuppression
carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic
seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
informs the mother that the child must have blood potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy.
The
tests every week. The mother asks why so many client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
blood tests are necessary. Which complication is testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not assessed through frequent laboratory testing that have as great a potential for occurrence as option C.
Options A and B the nurse should explain to this mother? are not typical complications of carbamazepine
therapy.
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity
, When developing a written nursing care plan for a D.
Cyclophosphamide client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of
cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding forHemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
hematuria." The administration of which type of cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B.Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D.Cyclophosphamide
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the
lawn." persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response
by the client indicates an accurate understanding Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be
of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse? cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options
B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects of this
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn." medication.
B."This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever
had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D."My urine will probably turn brown due to this
drug."
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency B. Diazepam
department with status epilepticus. His parents
report that his seizure disorder has been managed Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus.
with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Options A, C, and D are used for the long-term management of
seizure Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in disorders but are not as useful in the emergency
management of status the emergency department? epilepticus.
A. Phenytoin
B.Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D.Carbamazepine
A client who has trouble swallowing pills D. Contact the health care provider for another form of
medication. intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine
(XR) for depression. The medication comes in Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are
capsule form. What should the nurse include in the extended-release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain
delayed-discharge teaching plan for this client? release, enteric-coated granules to prevent decomposition of the drug
in the acidic pH of the stomach. The client should notify the health care
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding provider about the inability to swallow the capsule. This medication
or applesauce. should not be chewed or opened so that the delayed-release, enteric-
B.Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance coated granules can remain intact. Water or juice will not affect
the absorption. medication.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of
water or juice.
D.Contact the health care provider for another
form of medication.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the
anesthetic. anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the
anesthetic absorption? agent should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact
skin.
Application to the mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes. systemic absorption because absorption occurs more readily through
B.Limit the area of application to inflamed areas. mucous membranes than through the skin. Inflamed areas generally
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the have an increased blood supply, which increases the risk of
systemic anesthetic. absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface area
D.Spread the topical agent over a large surface increases the amount of topical drug that is available for
Pharmacology Evolve HESI Questions Verified and Provided
with A+ Graded Answers Latest Updated 2026
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a B. Neostigmine bromide
severe head injury is intubated and placed on
assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs,
optimal ventilation and prevent the client from reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium
"fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the
drug adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication compared with the use of anticholinergics.
should be immediately accessible for a potential
complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B.Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D.Epinephrine
,A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C,C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650
mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the
health care provider to report that the client has
developed diarrhea. Which change in
prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
When providing nursing care for a client receivingB. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis,
which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary
retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds
often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for
hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to
decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being B. Midazolam IV
prepared for a closed manual reduction using
conscious sedation. Which medication should the
nurse explain as a sedative used during the
procedure?
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM
A client is being discharged with a prescription for D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a
day. sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis. Which
instruction should the nurse provide to this client
prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
The health care provider prescribes C. Myelosuppression
carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic
seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
informs the mother that the child must have blood potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy.
The
tests every week. The mother asks why so many client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory
blood tests are necessary. Which complication is testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does
not assessed through frequent laboratory testing that have as great a potential for occurrence as option C.
Options A and B the nurse should explain to this mother? are not typical complications of carbamazepine
therapy.
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity
, When developing a written nursing care plan for a D.
Cyclophosphamide client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of
cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding forHemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
hematuria." The administration of which type of cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not
chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
to add this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B.Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D.Cyclophosphamide
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the
lawn." persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response
by the client indicates an accurate understanding Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be
of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse? cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options
B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects of this
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn." medication.
B."This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever
had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D."My urine will probably turn brown due to this
drug."
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency B. Diazepam
department with status epilepticus. His parents
report that his seizure disorder has been managed Diazepam is the drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus.
with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Options A, C, and D are used for the long-term management of
seizure Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in disorders but are not as useful in the emergency
management of status the emergency department? epilepticus.
A. Phenytoin
B.Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D.Carbamazepine
A client who has trouble swallowing pills D. Contact the health care provider for another form of
medication. intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine
(XR) for depression. The medication comes in Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are
capsule form. What should the nurse include in the extended-release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain
delayed-discharge teaching plan for this client? release, enteric-coated granules to prevent decomposition of the drug
in the acidic pH of the stomach. The client should notify the health care
A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding provider about the inability to swallow the capsule. This medication
or applesauce. should not be chewed or opened so that the delayed-release, enteric-
B.Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance coated granules can remain intact. Water or juice will not affect
the absorption. medication.
C. Take the medication with a large glass of
water or juice.
D.Contact the health care provider for another
form of medication.
The nurse is preparing to apply a surface C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the
anesthetic. anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should
the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the
anesthetic absorption? agent should be applied to the smallest surface area of intact
skin.
Application to the mucous membranes poses the greatest risk of
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes. systemic absorption because absorption occurs more readily through
B.Limit the area of application to inflamed areas. mucous membranes than through the skin. Inflamed areas generally
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the have an increased blood supply, which increases the risk of
systemic anesthetic. absorption, so option B should be avoided. A large surface area
D.Spread the topical agent over a large surface increases the amount of topical drug that is available for
