WALDEN UNIVERSIT Y · SCHOOL OF NURSING
NRNP 6531 Final Exam 2
Practice Question Bank
NCLEX-Style Practice Questions with Rationales
Topic Focus: Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Primary Care
Edition 1 · September 2026
Table of Contents
1. Instructions for Use 2
2. Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales 2
NRNP 6531 · Walden University Page 1
,NRNP 6531 PRACTICE GUIDE INSTRUCTIONS & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
How to Use This Guide
Read each stem, choose your answer, then check the rationale directly below it. The correct
option is marked, and each wrong option is explained so you understand why it's wrong — not
just that it is.
Category: Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Primary Care
1 Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
A Antiphospholipid antibodies
B Factor V Leiden mutation
C Prothrombin gene mutation
D Protein C deficiency
Correct Answer: A — Antiphospholipid antibodies are an acquired cause of thrombophilia.
Factor V Leiden, prothrombin gene mutation, and protein C deficiency are hereditary
causes.
B — Factor V Leiden is hereditary, not acquired.
C — Prothrombin gene mutation is hereditary.
D — Protein C deficiency is hereditary.
,2 Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
A Carpal tunnel syndrome
B De Quervain's tenosynovitis
C Trigger finger
D Cubital tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: A — Phalen's test, which involves 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds,
reproduces symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression).
B — Finkelstein's test is for De Quervain's tenosynovitis.
C — Trigger finger presents with catching/locking.
D — Cubital tunnel syndrome affects the ulnar nerve.
3 Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
A An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
B A 40-year-old male with a BMI of 24
C A 30-year-old female with no risk factors
D A 50-year-old male with a family history of cancer
Correct Answer: A — Obesity and recurrent vaginitis are risk factors for type 2 diabetes
that warrant screening.
B — BMI of 24 is normal.
C — No risk factors present.
D — Family history of cancer is not a diabetes risk factor.
, 4 A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive
swollen and painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no
systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear
antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A Osteoarthritis
B Rheumatoid arthritis
C Gout
D Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: A — DIP joint involvement without systemic symptoms is characteristic of
osteoarthritis. RA typically spares DIP joints, gout is acute, and psoriatic arthritis has skin
findings.
B — RA typically spares DIP joints.
C — Gout presents acutely with severe pain.
D — Psoriatic arthritis has skin findings.
5 A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination
for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract
infection. The initial treatment should be:
A Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
B Ciprofloxacin for 7 days
C Nitrofurantoin for 5 days
D Amoxicillin for 10 days
Correct Answer: A — In a young male with uncomplicated UTI, trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole for 3 days is appropriate initial therapy.
B — Ciprofloxacin is reserved for complicated UTIs.
C — Nitrofurantoin is not recommended for males.
D — Amoxicillin has high resistance rates.
NRNP 6531 Final Exam 2
Practice Question Bank
NCLEX-Style Practice Questions with Rationales
Topic Focus: Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Primary Care
Edition 1 · September 2026
Table of Contents
1. Instructions for Use 2
2. Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales 2
NRNP 6531 · Walden University Page 1
,NRNP 6531 PRACTICE GUIDE INSTRUCTIONS & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
How to Use This Guide
Read each stem, choose your answer, then check the rationale directly below it. The correct
option is marked, and each wrong option is explained so you understand why it's wrong — not
just that it is.
Category: Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Primary Care
1 Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia?
A Antiphospholipid antibodies
B Factor V Leiden mutation
C Prothrombin gene mutation
D Protein C deficiency
Correct Answer: A — Antiphospholipid antibodies are an acquired cause of thrombophilia.
Factor V Leiden, prothrombin gene mutation, and protein C deficiency are hereditary
causes.
B — Factor V Leiden is hereditary, not acquired.
C — Prothrombin gene mutation is hereditary.
D — Protein C deficiency is hereditary.
,2 Phalen's test, 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of:
A Carpal tunnel syndrome
B De Quervain's tenosynovitis
C Trigger finger
D Cubital tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: A — Phalen's test, which involves 90° wrist flexion for 60 seconds,
reproduces symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression).
B — Finkelstein's test is for De Quervain's tenosynovitis.
C — Trigger finger presents with catching/locking.
D — Cubital tunnel syndrome affects the ulnar nerve.
3 Which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes?
A An obese female with recurrent vaginitis
B A 40-year-old male with a BMI of 24
C A 30-year-old female with no risk factors
D A 50-year-old male with a family history of cancer
Correct Answer: A — Obesity and recurrent vaginitis are risk factors for type 2 diabetes
that warrant screening.
B — BMI of 24 is normal.
C — No risk factors present.
D — Family history of cancer is not a diabetes risk factor.
, 4 A 72-year-old female patient reports a 6-month history of gradually progressive
swollen and painful distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no
systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear
antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A Osteoarthritis
B Rheumatoid arthritis
C Gout
D Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: A — DIP joint involvement without systemic symptoms is characteristic of
osteoarthritis. RA typically spares DIP joints, gout is acute, and psoriatic arthritis has skin
findings.
B — RA typically spares DIP joints.
C — Gout presents acutely with severe pain.
D — Psoriatic arthritis has skin findings.
5 A 32-year-old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on urination
for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract
infection. The initial treatment should be:
A Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
B Ciprofloxacin for 7 days
C Nitrofurantoin for 5 days
D Amoxicillin for 10 days
Correct Answer: A — In a young male with uncomplicated UTI, trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole for 3 days is appropriate initial therapy.
B — Ciprofloxacin is reserved for complicated UTIs.
C — Nitrofurantoin is not recommended for males.
D — Amoxicillin has high resistance rates.
