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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Practice Newest 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Already Graded A+ with Rationales

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Voorbeeld 4 van de 146 pagina's

ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Practice Newest 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Already Graded A+ with Rationales

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Practice Newest 2026/2027
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers Already Graded A+ with
Rationales



1. A nurse receives shift report on four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?



A) A client 1 day post-total hip replacement with pain rated 4/10

B) A client with heart failure reporting increasing dyspnea over the past 2 hours

C) A client with type 2 diabetes and a fasting glucose of 142 mg/dL

D) A client with a new colostomy requesting assistance with appliance change



Answer: B) A client with heart failure reporting increasing dyspnea over the past

2 hours



Rationale: The client with heart failure and increasing dyspnea should be assessed
first using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework.
Worsening dyspnea may indicate pulmonary edema or cardiac decompensation—
a life-threatening respiratory emergency. Postoperative pain at 4/10, mildly
elevated glucose, and routine ostomy care are lower-acuity findings that can be
addressed after stabilizing the unstable client .

,2. A charge nurse is assigning tasks to an LPN and a UAP. Which task is most
appropriate to delegate to the UAP?



A) Measuring and recording intake and output for a client with acute kidney injury

B) Evaluating the effectiveness of a new antiemetic medication

C) Performing the initial admission assessment on a newly transferred client

D) Providing discharge teaching about home insulin administration



Answer: A) Measuring and recording intake and output for a client with acute

kidney injury



Rationale: I&O measurement is a standardized, non-invasive procedure within the
UAP scope of practice. UAPs may collect and document measurable data (I&O,
vital signs, weights). Evaluating medication effectiveness, performing
assessments, and providing discharge teaching require licensed nursing judgment
and cannot be delegated .



3. A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on an informed consent for a
total knee arthroplasty. Which client statement indicates the nurse should
contact the surgeon?

,A) "I am thankful there are no serious complications from this type of surgery."

B) "I understand the risks and benefits of the procedure."

C) "My family is here to support me."

D) "I am ready to sign the form."



Answer: A) "I am thankful there are no serious complications from this type of

surgery."



Rationale: If the client states there are no serious complications, this indicates
they may not fully understand the risks of the procedure. The nurse should
contact the surgeon to provide further explanation. The provider is responsible
for explaining risks, benefits, and alternatives; the nurse witnesses the signature
and verifies understanding .



4. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) applying a wrist restraint to a
client. Which action requires immediate intervention?



A) The AP ties the restraint to the bed frame

B) The AP checks the client's pulse in the restrained hand

C) The AP applies the restraint with two fingers of space

, D) The AP releases the restraint every 2 hours



Answer: A) The AP ties the restraint to the bed frame




Rationale: Restraints must be tied to the bed frame (not side rails) to prevent
injury if the side rail is lowered. The AP should check circulation, apply with two-
finger space, and release every 2 hours for range of motion and skin assessment.
Tying to side rails can cause injury if the rail is moved .



5. A client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons but is hemorrhaging.
What should the nurse do?



A) Transfuse anyway to save the client's life

B) Call the chaplain to convince the client

C) Notify the provider and document the refusal

D) Ask the family to make the decision



Answer: C) Notify the provider and document the refusal

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